Germany (Source): In light of differing interpretations, how convincing do you find the view that Hitler invaded Poland in September 1939 because he thought that the Western powers would not intervene?

Introduction

• Discussion of provenance

• Extract 1 argues that Hitler did not believe that Chamberlain’s guarantee changed matters

• Extract 2 states that Hitler knew that they would intervene

Paragraph 1

• Hitler thought that he could get away with the invasion of Poland if he had a reason for it

• ‘Hitler had told his top military leaders in May that Danzig was only an excuse for further expansion.’

• It’s obvious that there are limits to an aggressive foreign policy involving mobilising 1.5m troops to invade

• Western powers = too concerned with appeasement to do anything

• ‘They still wanted appeasement’

• British defence spending only 7% of GDP by 1938

Paragraph 2

• The aims of the Nazis was war

• ‘“We want war.”’

• Plan was to resettle 10m Germans in Eastern Europe anyway

• Hitler wanted intervention, rather than wanting to avoid it

• ‘If Western states intervened, it would give him the opportunity to destroy them.’

• Many of Germany’s 98 divisions already positioned in the West by Sept 1939

Paragraph 3

• Extract 1 suggests a miscalculation on AH’s part, whereas Extract 2 suggests that intervention was part of Hitler’s plan

• ‘Hitler thought that the guarantee to Poland was pure bluff’

• ‘Hitler calculated’

• The Hossbach Memorandum 1937 states that Germany should be ready for war with Britain and France

• Both extracts state that Hitler should be optimistic, but about different things

• ‘Hitler had good reason to be optimistic’

• ‘Hitler was not surprised’

• GDP spent on rearmament eventually reached 50%, so more likely to be optimistic because of the prospect of war