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SA node
what is the pacemaker of the heart
AV node
which part of the heart communicates from the atria to the ventricles
P wave
which part of the ECG shows atrial depolarization
PR interval
which part of the ECG shows atrial contraction
QRS complex
which part of the ECG shows ventricular depolarization
ST segment
which part of the ECG shows ventricular contraction
T wave
which part of the ECG shows ventricular repolarization
QRS Complex
which part of the ECG occurs when the atrial are repolarizing
Increased HR, BP, contractility, vasoconstriction
what are the four effects of the SNS
decreased HR/BP, Peristalsis
what are the three effects of the PNS
vagus
what is the nerve the is stimulated by the PNS
Systole
what is ventricular depolarization called?
Diastole
what is ventricular repolarization
Cardiac Output
what is the amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle per minute
Stroke Volume
what is the amount of blood ejected from the Left ventricle with each contraction
Preload, Afterload, Force of Contraction
what are the three things that the stroke volume is determined by?
Preload
what is the amount of fluid that is pre-put into the chamber before it is contracted
End-diastolic Volume
what is the total amount of blood that makes it into the chamber during preload
Afterload
what is the resistance to which the heart is overcoming in order to push the blood throughout the body
greater than the valves
the pressure created in the ventricles must be greater than what in order to push blood out of the heart
workload
increased afterload creates increased what on the heart during contraction
HTN, Valvular stenosis, increased Viscosity
what are the three causes of afterload
ventricular hypertrophy
increased afterload for a long period time can cause what?
Force of Contraction
what is described as how hard the heart is able to squeeze
Vasodilation vs Vasoconstriction, Fluid viscosity & volume, BV lenght
what are the three things that SVR is determined by
increased afterload
increased SVR causes what other disorder
as ventricles begin to contract
when do the AV valves close?
S1
when the AV valves close, what is that sequence?
as ventricles relax
when do the SL valves close
S2
when the SL valves close, what is that sequence called?
Stenosis
what is a problem when the valve opens called?
Atrial Valve stenosis
what disorder is described as impaired blood flow from LA to LV, LT atrial hypertrophy w/ decreased ventricular filling
Pulmonary HTN
what does atrial valve stenosis lead to?
Decreased CO, increased LT ventricle pressure
what are the two things that are changed with aortic stenosis
congenital defects, age-related calcifications, rheumatic heart disease
what are the three causes of Aortic stenosis
Angina, CNS syncope
what are the two S&S of aortic stenosis
Regurgitation
what is the type of valvular disorder that occurs when the valve closes?
Mitral Valve Regurgitation
what is the disorder called where the LT atrium enlarges and the LT ventricle hypertrophies to maintain CO
Aortic Regurgitation
what is it called when there is weakened forward pressure in the aorta leading to increased volume in the left ventricle
pulmonary edema
what does left HF lead to?
Rheumatic Heart Disease
heart disease caused by rheumatic fever with the inflammation
joints, skin, CNS, heart
what are the four things that are affected by rheumatic heart Disease
Aschoff bodies
what are deposits of fibrin & leukocytes called
prophylactic antibiotics
what is the medicine needed for the treatment of Aschoff bodies
Peripheral Vascular Diseaase
what is the disorder where there is a thickening and decreased elasticity of the blood vessels
Atherosclerosis, Aortic Aneurysms
what are the two Arterial PVD's
DM
atherosclerosis is a common problem with patients that have other disorders
intermittent claudication, diminished DP/PT pulses, Color changes, bruits
what are the four S&S of Atherosclerosis
Aortic Aneurysms
what is the dilation of the wall of the artery that is then filled with debris & clots
atherosclerotic
most of the aortic aneurysms are what type?
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
what is the type of aortic aneurysm that is characterized by an abdominal mass with no S&S's until the rupture occurs
CVA
for patients with a dissecting aortic aneurysm what are they at risk for?
Thrombophlebitis
what is the inflammation of the vein with a clot
increased Temp/HR, DVT,
what are the two S&S's of thrombophlebitis
PE
what is the biggest risk for a patient with a venous PVD
Trauma to wall of vein, slow blood flow, hypercoagulability
what are the three things that make up Virchow's Triad
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
what is it called when the veins lose elasticity, valves don't work, venous stasis, or increased hydrostatic pressure
Shiny brawny edema, stasis ulcers, pulses present, varicose veins
what are the four S&S's of Chronic Venous Insufficiency
Circumflex, LAD
what are the two left coronary arteries
85%
the LCA supplies how much of the heart
plaque breaks off, bleeding w/ thrombi form
what are the two things that occur for a patient with sudden coronary artery disease
gradual plaque accumulation
what is the thing that occurs for a patient with slow coronary artery disease
75%
S&S's occur when the BV becomes 75% occluded
Angina Pectoris
what is the disorder where there is a lack of O2 to the heart muscle
intense pain relieved by rest or NTG
what is the key sign of Angina Pectoris
Angina Pectoris
what is the warning sign of MI risk
Myocardial Infarction
what is the death of the heart muscle d/t lack of O2
Heart failure
what is it called when there is no blood flow getting to the heart and the heart muscle fails
decreased CO, tissue perfusion
what are the two things that are decreased in a patient with Heart Failure
Cardiogenic Shock or death
what are the two things that Heart failure can lead to
Ventilation, Perfusion
what are the two things that alveolar gas exchange requires
shunting
impaired ventilation can cause what
alveolar dead space
impaired perfusion can cause what
central chemoreceptors
what respond to levels of CO2 in the blood by adjusting rate and depth of respiration?
Peripheral chemoreceptors
what respond to decreased O2
Compliance
what is described as how easily lungs can expand
Elastance
what is how easily lungs snap back to original size
Resistance
what is an opposition to air flow?
negative pressure
what kind of pressure is required in the lungs for air to flow in?
Restrictive lung disease
what disorder decrease the max volume that the lungs can hold?
Atelactasis
what is a collapse of the alveoli called
Diminished breath sounds
what is the S&S for atelactasis
pneumonia
atelactasis increases the risk of what disease
incentive spirometer, CPAP, High flow NC
what are the three treatments for atelactasis
Pneumonia
what is an infection of the lung alveoli called
WBC, sputum culture, CXR, ABG's
what are the four Dx's for pneumonia
Aspiration
what is the the type of pneumonia that can occur d/t inhaled food, gastric contents
decreased LOC, decreased gag reflex, NG feedings, GERD, Infants
what are the five risk factors for Aspiration Pneumonia
Dyspnea, bronchospasms, cyanosis, possible wheezing
what are the S&S's for pneumonia
poverty, HIV, malnutrition, poor medical care, poor hygiene, crowded conditions
what are the six risk factors for tuberculosis
hemoptysis, weight loss, night sweats
what is the classic triad for active TB
CXR, sputum culture
what are the two ways to diagnose active TB
Pleural effusion
what disorder is described as increased fluid in the pleural cavity?
HF, atelactasis, pneumonia
what are the three things that pleural effusion is d/t
Chest tube
what is the treatment for pleural effusion
Pneumothorax
what is it called when air enters the pleural space causing breathing problems
Cyanosis, decreased tactile fremitus, hyperresonance
what are the three S&S's of pneumothorax
Open
which type of pneumothorax is described as air from outside or "sucking chest wound"
Closed
Which type of pneumothorax is described as air from inside the lung
traumatic, spontaneous
what are the two types of closed pneumothorax's