MCQ Exam Prep Practice Test Set 2

with a client in the standing position, they are asked to extend their trunk and slide their palm down the back of their leg while the therapist applies downward pressure on the client’s shoulders’s. If this test is positive, what is the clinical impression?

1. an upper motor neuron lesion

2. lumbar facet irritation

3. hypomobility of the sacroiliac joint

4. pathology of the iliolumbar ligament

2. lumbar facet irritation

a client describes symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome. However, Phalen’s Test and Reverse Phalen’s Test are both negative. Which of the following tests is NOT the most appropriate test to help identify the root cause of the symptoms?

1. pinch grip test

2. military brace test

3. pronator teres test

4. ULTT2

1. pinch grip test

a client in their second trimester states that their low back, hips, and gluteals have been very tense and painful. They provide informed and written consent for the treatment of this sensitive area. What is the appropriate draping for this client?

1. with the client in a prone position, the therapist should uncover the leg to be treated first and provide a secure drape that provides access to the one gluteal to be treated first. They will repeat this when they are ready to treat the opposite side

2. with the client in a supine, semi-reclined position, and a bolster under the right hip, the therapist should tuck the sheet tightly under the client’s hip as they reach their hands under the client to access the gluteals

3. with the client in a side-lying position, the therapist should uncover the top leg only and provide a secure drape that allows for access to the top gluteal only. This drape will be repeated when the client turns to their other side

4. with the client in a side-lying position, the therapist should lift and fold the sheet over the client’s front to provide access to their back and bilateral gluteals simultaneously

3. with the client in a side-lying position, the therapist should uncover the top leg only and provide a secure drape that allows for access to the top gluteal only. This drape will be repeated when the client turns to their other side

a client complaining of a painful bursa, about the size of a silver dollar, deep in the posterior shoulder; may have a trigger point in this muscle:

1. latissimus dorsi

2. subscapularis

3. teres minor

4. teres major

3. teres minor

to improve supination at the proximal radioulnar joint, what is the best direction to perform mobilizations in?

1. anterior

2. lateral

3. medial

4. posterior

1. anterior

at which stage of bursitis can a therapist directly compress the bursa?

1. the affected bursa should never be compressed

2. chronic

3. acute

4. subacute

1. the affected bursa should never be compressed

a unilateral grade 1 triceps deep tendon reflex likely indicates:

1. an upper motor neuron lesion of C7

2. an upper motor neuron lesion of C6

3. a lower motor neuron lesion of C7

4. a lower motor neuron lesion of C6

3. a lower motor neuron lesion of C7

what is the most appropriate room setup and positioning for a client seeking treatment for their chronic migraine?

1. supine with light peppermint and eucalyptus aromatherapy to soothe the migraine

2. prone with light peppermint and eucalyptus aromatherapy to soothe the migraine

3. supine with no scents and as many lights off as possible

4. prone with no scents and as many lights off as possible

3. supine with no scents and as many lights off as possible

what is the primary mandate of the regulatory college that licenses massage therapists?

1. to protect the interests of the massage therapists

2. to protect the interests of the public

3. to protect the interests of the government

4. to protect the interests of the profession

2. to protect the interests of the public

a massage therapist who has received certification in medical acupuncture incorporates it into a 60-minute massage treatment. What should be on the receipt for this client?

1. the receipt should read “Acupuncture Treatment” only, because the modality of acupuncture has more risk than that of massage therapy

2. the massage therapist’s registration number should not be included on this receipt because the incorporation of acupuncture made the massage treatment null and void

3. they will need to separate the two services and provide two separate receipts, one for massage therapy and one for Traditional Chinese Acupuncture

4. the receipt should read “Massage Therapy Treatment” because the acupuncture was provided within the context of the massage treatment

4. the receipt should read “Massage Therapy Treatment” because the acupuncture was provided within the context of the massage treatment

when performing a gait assessment, the therapist notices that the client has a right-sided high-steppage gait and that the right foot slaps onto the ground as they bring it down. What clinical impression is indicated by this observation alone?

1. the client’s altered gait is possibly due to a tibial nerve lesion only

2. the client’s altered gait is possibly due to a sciatic nerve lesion or a tibial nerve lesion

3. the client’s altered gait is possibly due to a sciatic nerve lesion only

4. the client’s altered gait is possibly due to a sciatic nerve lesion or a common peroneal nerve lesion

4. the client’s altered gait is possibly due to a sciatic nerve lesion or a common peroneal nerve lesion

which of the following active free glenohumeral range of motion results is most likely to be seen in a person with subacute adhesive capsulitis?

1. 175 degrees of abduction, 100 degrees of external rotation, 60 degrees of internal rotation, 180 degrees of flexion, 45 degrees of extension

2. 90 degrees of abduction, 60 degrees of external rotation, 45 degrees of internal rotation, 120 degrees of flexion, 55 degrees of extension

3. 90 degrees of abduction, 85 degrees of external rotation, 60 degrees of internal rotation, 120 degrees of flexion, 55 degrees of extension

4. 75 degrees of abduction, 60 degrees of external rotation, 45 degrees of internal rotation, 180 degrees of flexion, 45 degrees of extension

2. 90 degrees of abduction, 60 degrees of external rotation, 45 degrees of internal rotation, 120 degrees of flexion, 55 degrees of extension

what is an appropriate approach to a treatment plan for a client who also has severe varicose veins in both of their posterior legs?

1. muscle stripping and pumping to the legs to help reduce blood stasis and help with blood return to the heart, along with a recommendation that the client purchase compression stockings

2. the treatment plan should include whatever the client is requesting; their varicose veins should not affect the treatment plan

3. manual lymphatic drainage to the legs, followed by a recommendation that they have regular hot epsom salt baths to improve circulation

4. the treatment plan will have to be modified to avoid treatment on or distal to the varicose veins, and the client can be advised to avoid sitting for long periods of time

4. the treatment plan will have to be modified to avoid treatment on or distal to the varicose veins, and the client can be advised to avoid sitting for long periods of time

a client has requested treatment for their calves that are prone to cramping at night. On assessment, there is hypertonicity and reduced length in the bilateral gastrocnemius and soleus muscles. The hamstrings and quadriceps are unaffected. What is the appropriate draping for this treatment?

1. a posterior leg drape to just above the knee

2. a posterior leg drape not including the gluteal muscles

3. a posterior leg drape including the gluteal muscles

4. the therapist should fold the linens back to uncover both lower legs simultaneously

2. a posterior leg drape not including the gluteal muscles

a therapist brings a supine client’s shoulder into 90 degrees of abduction and elbow into 90 degrees of flexion and then internally rotates the shoulder slowly so the client’s palm moves toward the floor. The client is then asked to push isometrically against the therapists resistance into external shoulder rotation. What proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique is the therapist employing, and what muscle is being targeted?

1. agonist-contract PNF to the infraspinatus

2. contract-relax PNF to the subscapularis

3. hold-relax PNF to the teres minor

4. contract-relax PNF to the supraspinatus

3. hold-relax PNF to the teres minor

after performing a deep tendon reflex for the S1 nerve root, the client’s foot continues to plantar flex as though they are continuously tapping their foot, without stopping or subsiding. What grade will this deep tendon reflex be given?

1. grade 3

2. grade 0

3. grade 5

4. grade 2

3. grade 5

which of the following active free range of motion findings is considered normal?

1. wrist flexion of 60 degrees

2. hip extension of 2 degrees

3. ankle dorsiflexion of 30 degrees

4. glenohumeral internal rotation of 40 degrees

3. ankle dorsiflexion of 30 degrees

during a gait assessment, if there is no pathology, the correct sequence of movement starting with heel strike is:

1. heel strike, midstance, flat foot, heel-off, toe-off, midswing

2. heel strike, midstance, flat foot, toe-off, heel-off, midwing

3. heel strike, flat foot, midstance, midswing, heel-off, toe-off

4. heel strike, flat foot, midstance, heel-off, toe-off, midswing

4. heel strike, flat foot, midstance, heel-off, toe-off, midswing

which of the following conditions is considered a general contraindication to a massage treatment?

1. athlete’s foot

2. varicose veins on the legs

3. systemic infection

4. plantar warts

3. systemic infection

what type of asthma is triggered by pet dander?

1. intrinsic asthma

2. extrinsic asthma

3. mixed asthma

4. status asthma

2. extrinsic asthma

a client with uncontrolled hypertension insists on receiving a 90 minute full body deep tissue massage face down. They state they will not give consent for treatment until the massage therapist agrees to provide the treatment they want in the way that they want it. What should the therapist do?

1. the therapist will need to make every effort to explain to the client why the treatment they are requesting is unsafe and the necessity of modifications. If the client still refuses, then the therapist must respectfully recognize and record the client’s refusal, and not treat

2. the therapist cannot refuse to treat because it is considerd abandonment, so they should bypass the need for the client’s consent and treat in the way they, the therapist, know to be the most effective and safe

3. contact their family physician and request a note for their chart, clearing the client for the treatment they are requesting

4. treat the client as they wish, as long as the client signs a document stating that this was the only treatment they wanted

1. the therapist will need to make every effort to explain to the client why the treatment they are requesting is unsafe and the necessity of modifications. If the client still refuses, then the therapist must respectfully recognize and record the client’s refusal, and not treat

what is the extra amount of air that can be inhaled during one deep breath?

1. inspiratory reserve volume

2. tidal volume

3. expiratory reserve volume

4. total lung capacity

1. inspiratory reserve volume

a client tells their therapist about a specific treatment that their osteopath has suggested for them. This treatment, in the therapist’s educated opinion, sounds unecessary and a bit risky. What should they do?

1. ask the client if they agree to the therapist contacting the osteopath to gain more information about their treatment rationale

2. don’t do anything, it’s not the therapist’s responsibility to determine what another practitioner wants to do with their client

3. tell the client why this osteopath is a bad practitioner and that they need to choose between the therapist or the osteopath

4. tell them osteopaths are not a regulated healthcare profession and they should definately not go back

1. ask the client if they agree to the therapist contacting the osteopath to gain more information about their treatment rationale

what genetic disorder could lead to hemarthrosis, intracranial bleeding, and compartment syndrome?

1. multiple myeloma

2. hemochromatosis

3. hemophilia

4. leukemia

3. hemophilia

a trigger point in this muscle can resemble the referral pain and pattern of sciatica and is therefore also referred to as ‘pseudo-sciatica’. Which muscle is being referenced?

1. gluteus medius

2. piriformis

3. gluteus maximus

4. gluteus minimus

4. gluteus minimus

which of the following needs to be modified to treat a hypertensive person?

1. starting with a hand and/or foot massage

2. positioning the client in right side-lying or semi-reclined

3. working on an area in smaller segments

4. working proximal to distal during treatment

4. working proximal to distal during treatment

a client in the late subacute/chronic phase of healing of a torn biceps brachii muscle would like to have treatment to improve their reduced range of motion (ROM) in the arm due to scar tissue buildup. Which protocol is most efficient for this treatment?

1. perform gentle myofascial release directly over the area of injury with the arm in a relaxed neutral position

2. perform frictions over the biceps brachii muscle with the arm in a relaxed neutral position

3. perform frictions over the biceps brachii tendon with the arm extended and in pronation

4. perform gentle myofascial release around the area of injury with the arm extended and in pronation

3. perform frictions over the biceps brachii tendon with the arm extended and in pronation

a client comes in for a hip treatment. They tell the therapist that they recieved a corticosteroid injection just under a month ago. They were hoping that the massage therapy treatment could continue with the joint mobilizations that were performed by the therapist during the last treatment, because it really helped them. How should the therapist proceed?

1. do not perform joint play, as a corticosteroid injection is a contraindication for this technique

2. corticosteroids have no effect on the choice of techniques a therapist chooses, especially if the techniques are of great benefit

3. the therapist should clarify the exact date of the injection and take the necessary precautions when and if performing the technique

4. no precautions need to be taken because the injection was done almost a month ago

3. the therapist should clarify the exact date of the injection and take the necessary precautions when and if performing the technique

the blood from the right ventricle passes into which one of the following blood vessels?

1. aorta

2. superior vena cava

3. pulmonary vein

4. pulmonary trunk

4. pulmonary trunk

a client has missed an appointment and is charged a no-show fee. They request a receipt for this charge after paying it so they can submit it to their insurance. After receiving the receipt, they are upset. Assuming the massage therapist followed all the appropriate regulations on writing and giving receipts, what is the most likely reasons that the client is upset with the receipt?

1. the massage therapist did not actually provide them with a receipt because they’re not allowed to

2. the massage therapist did not put the date of payment on the receipt

3. they can’t submit it to their insurance because the receipt stipulates the payment was for a “missed appointment” and not a “massage treatment”

4. they can’t submit it to their insurance because the massage therapist didn’t put their registration number on it

3. they can’t submit it to their insurance because the receipt stipulates the payment was for a “missed appointment” and not a “massage treatment”

which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitated (PNF) stretch method uses both reciprocal and autogenic inhibition?

1. contract-relax

2. hold-relax

3. agonist-contract

4. contract-relax, agonist-contract

4. contract-relax, agonist-contract

which of the following is not an indication for performing a passive stretch on a client?

1. improving activities of daily living due to limited range of motion

2. increase the range of motion limited by adhesions or contractures

3. lengthening a spasming muscle

4. lengthening shortened muscle tissue due to muscle weakness of the opposing muscle

3. lengthening a spasming muscle

a therapist has an older client who is on blood thinners to prevent deep vein thrombosis. They had a hard fall on their elbow while out walking. What symptoms are likely present?

1. risk of aneurysm

2. risk of embolism

3. large area of scabbing

4. excessive hemorrhaging and brusing

4. excessive hemorrhaging and brusing

professional misconduct can be defined as contravening or failing to maintain either published standards of the college or standards of practice of the profession. Which of the following act falls under this definition for a massage therapist?

1. after a thorough assessment, a massage therapist provides a client with a diagnosis

2. allowing another healthcare professional to view a client’s file in the interest of providing health care to the client

3. withholding a client’s file until they have paid the necessary and reasonable fee to obtain it

4. shredding an adult client’s file after holding it for the time set out by their local governing body

1. after a thorough assessment, a massage therapist provides a client with a diagnosis

which of the following is a sample of a closed-ended interview question?

1. how has your condition been since your last treatment?

2. which regions would you like included in your massage today?

3. can you describe how you hurt yourself?

4. have you been diagnosed by a medical doctor?

4. have you been diagnosed by a medical doctor?

which of the following is not considered a conflict of interest?

1. taking supplies from work for personal use

2. hiring a new massage therapist at a massage therapy clinic based on their interview skills and resume

3. getting a friend a job through a clinical relationship

4. accepting freebies or gifts from an equipment supplier in exchange for an official supplier status within a professional association for which the massage therapist is on the board

2. hiring a new massage therapist at a massage therapy clinic based on their interview skills and resume

what technique requires a therapist to warm and stretch the tissue prior to application and then soothe the tissue after it is complete?

1. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

2. moderate tapotement

3. muscle approximation

4. deep fascial

4. deep fascial

in order to produce a mechanical effect on the splenic and hepatic flexures of the large colon, which technique is best for a therapist to employ?

1. coarse static vibrations

2. pounding tapotement

3. stimulating stroking

4. fine static vibrations

1. coarse static vibrations

a client goes in for an emergency surgery and has a splenectomy. What are the risks and side effects of a removed spleen?

1. decreased immune response and risk of sepsis

2. decreased immune response

3. severe anemia

4. decreased production of lymphocytes

1. decreased immune response and risk of sepsis

the trendelenburg test evaluates both muscle strength and whether or not the superior gluteal nerve has been compromised. A client standing on their right leg lifts their left leg, and the left hip drops. This is a positive result, which indicates that:

1. the gluteus maximus on the right is affected

2. the gluteus maximus on the left is affected

3. the gluteus medius and minimus on the right are affected

4. the gluteus medius and minimus on the left are affected

3. the gluteus medius and minimus on the right are affected

which of the following best fits into the healthcare ethical principle of beneficence?

1. a therapist will refrain from participating in behaviours that could potentially harm clients

2. a therapist will ensure that their knowledge and skill are current and evidence-based to provide the best possible treatment to their clients

3. a therapist will provide fair and equitable access to all clients, free of discrimination

4. a therapist has a professional responsibility to maintain public trust and confidence and portray a professional image

2. a therapist will ensure that their knowledge and skill are current and evidence-based to provide the best possible treatment to their clients

refusing treatment to a client who attempts to sexualize the therapeutic relationship would fall under which ethical principle in healthcare?

1. treat all clients with respect and dignity

2. benefit clients and serve their best interest

3. not harm clients

4. be responsible and accountable

4. be responsible and accountable

the therapist has an adult client in their late 50s who has complained about weight gain to the therapist and has said it has been an issue since their mid 20s. The client admits that their diet has consisted of highly processed fast foods since their teens, and that they rarely exercise, if at all. The client reports that lately, they are always thirsty, urinating excessively, and having sweet-smelling urine. What should the therapist suspect their client may be suffering from?

1. hypothyroidism

2. type 2 diabetes

3. type 1 diabetes

4. metabolic syndrome

2. type 2 diabetes

what nerve is responsible for the massive parasympathetic output that slows down heart rate?

1. bundle of his

2. purkinje fibers

3. glossopharyngeal nerve

4. vagus nerve

4. vagus nerve

a massage therapist is being investigated because of a complaint lodged by a client. An investigator from the regulatory college is at the massage therapist’s office and wishes to see the chart of the client who made the complaint. There is no signed consent for the release of this chart. What should the massage therapist do in this situation?

1. report the investigator as they are trying to trick the massage therapist into an act of professional misconduct by releasing a chart without signed consent

2. request that the investigator first get a signed consent from the client to release the chart to them

3. cooperate with the investigator and give them access to the chart as signed consent is not required during an investigation by a regulatory college

4. refuse to give access to the chart in order to protect the client’s confidentiality

3. cooperate with the investigator and give them access to the chart as signed consent is not required during an investigation by a regulatory college

which principle of massage is most relevant when treating a subacute stage contusion on a client’s upper back?

1. proximal-distal-proximal

2. superficial-deep-superficial

3. peripheral-distal-peripheral

4. peripheral-central-peripheral

4. peripheral-central-peripheral

holding the origin and insertion of a muscle and approximating them by pushing the hands toward each other can help reduce muscle tension by acting on:

1. the golgi tendon organ

2. the muscle spindle

3. the surrounding muscle fascia

4. the sarcomeres

2. the muscle spindle

which dermatome crosses the chest and travels down the anterolateral arm to the wrist?

1. C8

2. C5

3. C7

4. C6

2. C5

which sustained glide will appropriately assess where a tissue barrier is located in a joint?

1. grade III

2. grade I

3. grade II

4. grade IV

3. grade II

what nerve innervates the diaphragm?

1. olfactory nerve

2. glossopharyngeal nerve

3. phrenic nerve

4. vagus nerve

3. phrenic nerve

a client with a week-old tibia and fibula fracture is in a hard cast from the foot up to the distal side of the knee. What is a recommended remedial exercise for this client?

1. isotonic hamstrings exercises to maintain strength and mobility in the leg

2. active range of motion exercises for the unaffected leg to encourage overall blood flow

3. isometric plantar and dorsi flexion of the foot against the cast to maintain blood flow and prevent muscle atrophy

4. no exercises at all should be performed at this time

2. active range of motion exercises for the unaffected leg to encourage overall blood flow

the therapist has a client who reports severe exhaustion, tender lymph nodes, unrelenting fatigue, and non-restorative rest, but no fever. What condition does this client likely have?

1. mononucleosis

2. HIV

3. tonsilitis

4. chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)

4. chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)

when the rounded rubber portion of the reflex hammer touches the bottom of a client’s foot, they are unable to identify if the object is dull or sharp, and are barely able to register a sensation at all. What has been demonstrated in this scenario?

1. a negative S1 reflex test

2. a positive L4 myotome test

3. a positive babinski reflex

4. a positive L5 dermatome test

4. a positive L5 dermatome test

a client recovering from a frozen shoulder is in the chronic stage. They are ready to start increasing their glenohumeral range of motion (ROM) and will need the residual joint adhesions broken down. Which joint mobilization is best?

1. grade I joint oscillation

2. grade V joint oscillation

3. grade II joint oscillation

4. grade IV joint oscillation

4. grade IV joint oscillation

superficial fluid techniques can be utilized on a healthy individual requiring no modifications. They are performed:

1. in long fluid strokes from proximal to distal

2. segmentally, starting on a proximal area and moving distally

3. in long fluid strokes toward the heart or nearest lymph nodes

4. segmentally, starting in a distal area and moving proximally

3. in long fluid strokes toward the heart or nearest lymph nodes

which client is best suited to have proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitated (PNF) stretching incorporated into their treatment to meet their primary goal?

1. a client with ehlers-danlos wanting to strengthen the muscles that cross their shoulder joints

2. a client wanting to reduce their active torticollis

3. a client with a partial C5/C6 lesion wanting to reduce spasticity in their trapezius muscles and encourage muscle firing in their denervated muscles

4. an amateur kickboxer looking to lengthen their hamstrings and quadriceps

4. an amateur kickboxer looking to lengthen their hamstrings and quadriceps

when are isotonic contractions appropriate for a client who is recovering from a fracture?

1. several weeks after the cast has been removed, after proper consolidation of the bone has occurred

2. while they have their cast on for stabilization

3. before they have their cast put on for more freedom of movement

4. right after they have their cast removed, to immediately start muscle rehabilitation

1. several weeks after the cast has been removed, after proper consolidation of the bone has occurred

pain is identified in a client’s iliofemoral joint upon hip flexion during an active free range of motion (AF ROM) assessment. What is the purpose of performing a passive relaxed range of motion (PR ROM) assessment?

1. to identify if the pain is potentially due to non-contractile tissues at the joint

2. to assess the client’s willingness to have the joint moved

3. a passive range of motion assessment is unnecessary

4. to identify if the pain is potentially due to contractile tissues at the joint

1. to identify if the pain is potentially due to non-contractile tissues at the joint

which of the following structures should be placed into a stretched or lengthened position when performing the friction technique?

1. patellar tendon

2. ulnar collateral ligament

3. flexor digitorum superficialis muscle

4. trapezius muscle

3. flexor digitorum superficialis muscle

which of the following best describes a substitute decision maker when it comes to client consent for a treatment?

1. a client’s child, as long as they are 12 years of age or older

2. an individual who can substitute in for a competent client’s spouse in making decisions

3. an individual who makes treatment decisions for a client who is not capable of making them independently

4. whoever happens to be with the client at the moment and knows them

3. an individual who makes treatment decisions for a client who is not capable of making them independently

which of the following tests, if positive, is a contraindication to treatment and requires an immediate physician referral?

1. kendall test

2. gillet’s test

3. thompson test

4. finkelstein test

3. thompson test

when performing a treatment for constipation, the “sun and moon” effleurage technique should be performed:

1. in a counterclockwise direction around the abdomen

2. in an inferior-to-superior direction up the abdomen

3. in a medial-to-lateral direction across the abdomen

4. in a clockwise direction around the abdomen

4. in a clockwise direction around the abdomen

what treatment protocol is appropriate for a client with chronic bronchitis requesting clearance of their right middle lobe?

1. the client is prone, receiving a progressive variety of tapotement to their entire back

2. the client is lying on their left side, receiving cupping tapotement to their right side

3. the client is positioned in a 45 degree head-down position, receicing point hacking to the right side

4. the client is seated and leaning forward, resting on a desk or massage table, receiving pounding to the right side

2. the client is lying on their left side, receiving cupping tapotement to their right side

a massage therapist has received notice from their regulatory college that a complaint has been filed against them. Of the options below, what is the best course of action for the massage therapist to take?

1. immediately head off the complaint by posting the therapists side of the story on social media

2. wait for further instructions from their regulatory college

3. contact the complainant by phone to work things out

4. write a letter of apology to the complainant

2. wait for further instructions from their regulatory college

a client with an acute grade 2 sprain of their right anterior talofibular ligament will likely present with what adaption to the stance phase?

1. the right leg will be in the stance phase for 50% of the gait cycle

2. the right leg will be in the stance phase for 90% of the gait cycle

3. the right leg will be in the stance phase for 60% of the gait cycle

4. the right leg will be in the stance phase for 10% of the gait cycle

4. the right leg will be in the stance phase for 10% of the gait cycle

in which situation would a therapist suspect a client is incapable of consenting to treatment?

1. the client refuses the proposed treatment and requests an alternative approach

2. the client has a hearing impairment and used a translator

3. the client is unable to make a settled decision about the proposed treatment

4. the client is seeing impaired and unable to read the treatment waiver

3. the client is unable to make a settled decision about the proposed treatment

what is the correct protocol for a myofascial trigger point technique?

1. hold for two minutes, or until pain dissipates, repeated as many times as needed

2. hold until the trigger point fully releases, repeated a maximum of five times

3. hold for 30 seconds up to two minutes, repeated a maximum of two times

4. hold for 30 seconds, repeated a maximum of four times

3. hold for 30 seconds up to two minutes, repeated a maximum of two times

what ethical principle recognizes a client’s ethical and legal rights to be the decision makers in their healthcare?

1. autonomy

2. beneficence

3. justice

4. non-maleficence

1. autonomy

which observation of the upper limb resting neutrally indicates if a client has erb’s palsy?

1. they have waiter’s tip deformity

2. they have oath hand

3. they have ape hand

4. they have claw hand

1. they have waiter’s tip deformity

a client with noted hyperlordosis on postural assessment will have:

1. short erector spinae and gluteus maximus muscles, and long abdominals and iliopsoas muscles

2. long erector spinae and iliopsoas muscles, and short abdominals and gluteus maximus muscles

3. long erector spinae and gluteus maximus muscles, and short abdominals and iliopsoas muscles

4. short erector spinae and iliopsoas muscles, and long abdominals and gluteus maximus muscles

4. short erector spinae and iliopsoas muscles, and long abdominals and gluteus maximus muscles

a client with a two-year-old surgical fusion in their lumbar spine is having their quadratus lumborum muscle treated for pain and tension. The therapist has performed a myofascial trigger point technique. How should the therapist complete the technique protocols?

1. they should not perform any stretch or modification of a stretch to any muscle around the lumbar spine

2. they should perform grade II lateral joint mobilization to the lumbar vertebrae in lieu of the stretch of the quadratus lumborum muscle, as this will also have a stretching effect

3. they must perform a stretch of the quadratus lumborum muscle to return the muscle to its normal length

4. they should perform muscle stripping in lieu of a stretch of the quadratus lumborum muscle to return the muscle to its normal length

4. they should perform muscle stripping in lieu of a stretch of the quadratus lumborum muscle to return the muscle to its normal length

while performing a lateral view postural assessment, which of the following indicates that the plumb line is out of proper alignment?

1. it runs posterior to the midline of the knee joint

2. it runs through the greater trochanter

3. it goes through the centre of the upper cervical vertebral bodies

4. it goes through the external auditory meatus of the ear

1. it runs posterior to the midline of the knee joint

congestive heart failure is caused by an excess backup of blood in the heart. What is most directly responsible for this?

1. preload

2. afterload

3. contractility

4. obesity

2. afterload

which one of the following cranial bones is part of the respiratory system?

1. temporal bone

2. parietal bone

3. frontal bone

4. occiput

3. frontal bone

what is the main difference between the treatment approach for a contusion in the late subacute stage versus the chronic stage?

1. contrast hydrotherapy is indicated in late subacute, while heat is indicated in chronic

2. mid-range passive range of motion is only indicated in late subacute and not in chronic

3. circulatory techniques can be performed distal to the injury in chronic but not late subacute

4. frictions are indicated in chronic but not late subacute

1. contrast hydrotherapy is indicated in late subacute, while heat is indicated in chronic

the therapist’s client is on antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. They hear that their client has been admitted to the emergency department to see if the infection has spread into the bloodstream. What could the client be at risk of if the infection has spread to their blood?

1. neurogenic shock

2. cardiogenic shock

3. hypovolemic shock

4. septic shock

4. septic shock

with the client seated and one forearm resting on the table in the pronated position, the therapist places one finger contact on the client’s fingernail of the third digit. The therapist asks the client to attempt to extend their third digit while preventing the client from moving. What is the therapist testing for?

1. medial epicondylitis

2. interphalangeal joint restriction

3. lateral epicondylitis

4. lumbrical weakness

3. lateral epicondylitis

what indicates to a therapist that they should discontinue the friction technique immediately?

1. the scar tissue has become less palpable

2. the area being treated cannot be easily stretched after the technique

3. the client is feeling numbness over the area being frictioned

4. the scar has become more painful to the touch

4. the scar has become more painful to the touch

which of the following is a precaution for manual lymphatic drainage? (MLD)

1. untreated cancer

2. thrombosis

3. extreme hypotension

4. congestive heart failure

3. extreme hypotension

which of the following is NOT necessarily an identifier for the prescence of a trigger point and could be a red flag symptom?

1. taut band

2. jump sign

3. numbness and tingling

4. local twitch response

3. numbness and tingling

a therapist has a client who has been gaining weight each time they see them and, as a result, is experiencing a spike in their blood pressure each time the therapist checks it. What is the physiological reason for this?

1. greater blood vessel length as a result of excess adipose tissue

2. increased blood viscosity

3. enlarged lumen size of the blood vessels

4. shorter blood vessel length as a result of excess adipose tissue

1. greater blood vessel length as a result of excess adipose tissue

which of the following describes the healthcare ethical principle of non-maleficence (do no harm)

1. provide fair and equitable access and consistent quality of care to all clients, free of discrimination

2. benefiting clients and serving their best interests by using professional knowledge based on current and evidence-based research

3. individually and collectively, therapists have a professional responsibility to maintain public trust and confidence

4. act with honesty and transparency if harm does occur, take responsibility for disclosing this harm to the client, and initiate steps to minimize the harm

4. act with honesty and transparency if harm does occur, take responsibility for disclosing this harm to the client, and initiate steps to minimize the harm

while performing a strength test for the tibialis anterior muscle, the client finds that they are only able to perform dorsiflexion of the foot when they are lying on their side. What grade does this client get for their strength test?

1. grade 2

2. grade 4

3. grade 3

4. grade1

1. grade 2

what technique can be performed over sheets or clothing, or directly on a client’s skin with or without lotion?

1. soothing stroking

2. passive stretch

3. effleurage

4. frictions

1. soothing stroking

which of the following is an implied commitment that all healthcare professionals make when they become licensed to practice?

1. the commitment to publicly release information that is amusing or interesting

2. the commitment to only treat clients that have the potential to get better

3. the commitment to do what is best for the clinic owner or hospital CEO they work for

4. the commitment to protect the best interests of the client and do no harm

4. the commitment to protect the best interests of the client and do no harm

which of the following special tests is used to determine the effect of increased pressure on the spinal cord?

1. valsalva manoeuvre

2. swallow test

3. vertebral artery test

4. homan’s sign

1. valsalva manoeuvre

which test, if positive, suggests tendinopathy of the supraspinatus muscle?

1. yergason’s test

2. empty can test

3. speed’s test

4. codman test

2. empty can test

what receptors are responsible for monitoring skeletal muscle activity levels in the body?

1. proprioceptors

2. chemoreceptors

3. baroreceptors

4. vagus nerve

1. proprioceptors

a person has difficulty turning their head to the right. What is the best joint mobilization for this scenario?

1. push anteriorly on the left transverse process

2. push medially on the tip of the right transverse process

3. push medially on the tip of the left transverse process

4. push anteriorly on the right transverse process

1. push anteriorly on the left transverse process

what technique standard indicates that a joint must be in the loose-packed position and taken up to the elastic barrier, but not beyond, within the client’s pain tolerance?

1. applying high-grade joint mobilizations

2. applying deep fascial techniques

3. applying low-grade joint mobilizations

4. performing a rythmic mobilization

3. applying low-grade joint mobilizations

a client experiencing limited range in pronation of the forearm after having their cast removed from a midshaft fracture of the ulna would benefit from which technique?

1. frictions to locally affected tissues

2. passive range of motion (ROM) of the elbow complex in flexion, extension, pronation, and supination

3. grade III or IV posterior mobilization of the proximal radioulnar joint

4. passive stretch of the pronator teres muscle

3. grade III or IV posterior mobilization of the proximal radioulnar joint

what is the normal scapulothoracic rhythm?

1. the scapula should not move during humeral abduction

2. for every 1 degree of humeral abduction, the scapula should move 2 degrees

3. the scapula and humerus should move in unison during abduction

4. for every 2 degrees of humeral abduction, the scapula should move 1 degree

4. for every 2 degrees of humeral abduction, the scapula should move 1 degree

which of the following is an example of a closed-chain isometric exercise?

1. performing a sit-up

2. holding a plank position

3. holding the legs six inches off the ground in a supine position

4. performing a push-up

2. holding a plank position

what modification should a therapist make for a client who has controlled and stable stage 1 (mild) hypertension?

1. no modifications necessary

2. they can be positioned in prone for up to 10 minutes with no abdominal pillow

3. techniques should be done segmentally

4. they should never be positioned prone

2. they can be positioned in prone for up to 10 minutes with no abdominal pillow

what vessel drains two-thirds of the lymph in the whole body?

1. jugular trunk

2. bronchomediastinal trunk

3. thoracic duct

4. right lymphatic duct

3. thoracic duct

which of the following describes the most accurate protocol for approaching a deep facial technique?

1. warm up the tissue with effleurage and lotion, and then proceed into skin rolling to separate the fascia

2. warm up the tissues with effleurage and lotion, and then perform the fascial techniques over the sheets to prevent gliding on the skin

3. assess the direction of fascial restriction with a glide, ensuring there is no lotion on the skin, then progress into gradually deeper fascial techniques

4. ensure there is no lotion on the client’s skin, and then apply pressure to gain the deepest possible structures before applying cross-fibre frictions

3. assess the direction of fascial restriction with a glide, ensuring there is no lotion on the skin, then progress into gradually deeper fascial techniques

after performing a passive relaxed range of motion on a client’s elbow joint, which of the following findings indicates pathology in the joint?

1. pronation = 60 degrees with empty end feel

2. supination = 90 degrees with firm tissue stretch end feel

3. flexion = 145 degrees with tissue approximation end feel

4. extension = 180 degrees with bony end feel

1. pronation = 60 degrees with empty end feel

the technical description of petrissage is:

1. gliding manipulation, affecting blood and lymph

2. compression and release of tissues in a rythmical pattern

3. broad and general movement toward the heart

4. rocking to create movement around a joint

2. compression and release of tissues in a rythmical pattern

which one of the following needs to be stated and clarified prior to a client being able to give informed consent to receive a treatment?

1. guaranteed outcome of a treatment

2. assessment and reassessment

3. duration of the treatment

4. alternative courses of action

4. alternative courses of action

a client is having difficulty moving their right arm due to a large contusion from getting hit with a puck yesterday. Which of the following is contraindicated in the therapist’s appointment with this person?

1. applying cold to the area

2. letting them demonstrate their pain-free, active free ROM

3. treating proximal to the contusion

4. performing passive range of motion (PROM)

4. performing passive range of motion (PROM)