Product Management Exam 1

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Last updated 12:04 AM on 5/27/26
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237 Terms

1
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According to the 'Analytical Attribute' approach, what are the three types of product attributes?

Features, functions, and benefits.

2
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In the context of product attributes, what is the definition of a 'feature'?

What the product consists of, such as dimensions, components, or materials.

3
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In the context of product attributes, what is the definition of a 'function'?

What the product does and how it works.

4
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In the context of product attributes, what is the definition of a 'benefit'?

How the product provides satisfaction to the user.

5
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Product attributes are often classified into a sequence; a feature permits a _____, which leads to a benefit.

Function

6
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A shampoo contains proteins (feature) that coat the hair (function); what is the resulting benefit?

More shine on the hair.

7
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What type of product attribute is 'price' considered to be in the typology provided?

Feature

8
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What is the difference between a direct benefit and an indirect benefit?

A direct benefit is the immediate result (e.g., clean teeth), while an indirect benefit follows from it (e.g., romance).

9
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Regarding a spoon, the 'small shallow bowl' and the 'handle' are examples of which attribute type?

Features

10
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The fact that a spoon 'can pry, poke, or be used as a catapult' refers to its _____.

Functions

11
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Which analytical attribute approach specifically uses features for analysis?

Dimensional analysis

12
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Which analytical attribute approach utilizes determinant attributes specifically?

Trade-off analysis

13
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A 'Situation Assessment' examines six aspects across a continuum of _____ and _____ factors.

External; internal

14
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Which aspect of the Situation Assessment is considered the most 'External'?

Market Trends and Dynamics

15
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Which aspect of the Situation Assessment is considered the most 'Internal'?

Internal Capabilities

16
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In a Situation Assessment, 'brand perceptions' and 'unmet needs' are components of which aspect?

Consumers

17
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In a Situation Assessment, 'sales unit, revenue, and margin trends' fall under which aspect?

Current Business Performance

18
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What are the four steps to 'Defining the Market Category and Scope'?

Specify the Customer and Need, Identify the Product Type, Set Boundaries, and Consider adjacent/substitute categories.

19
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Defining the market from the 'demand side' involves specifying which two elements?

The customer and the need.

20
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Why is market sizing considered the foundation of strategic planning for a new product?

It determines the scope of opportunity and informs choices like pricing and marketing budget.

21
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When estimating market size, what does the acronym TAM represent?

Total Addressable Market

22
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What is the formula for calculating Total Addressable Market (TAM) using the Bottoms Up method?

TAM = # Customers $\times$ Avg. annual spend

23
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How is the Serviceable Addressable Market (SAM) defined?

The sub-market that can be served based on geography, segment, or channel.

24
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What does SOM represent in market sizing?

Serviceable Obtainable Market (the share realistically winnable in 1–3 years).

25
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Contrast the 'Top Down' and 'Bottoms Up' methods of market sizing.

Top Down starts with published category reports; Bottoms Up builds from fundamental customer counts and spending.

26
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What is the 'best practice' recommendation for estimating market size and growth rates?

Triangulate by using both Top Down and Bottoms Up methods.

27
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According to the 'rising tide' concept, why is market growth rate critical?

A growing market can lift product prospects even if the market is currently small.

28
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What are the five stages of the New Product Process?

  1. Opportunity Identification and Selection, 2. Concept Generation, 3. Concept/Project Evaluation, 4. Development, 5. Launch.

29
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What is the core objective of Stage 1: Opportunity Identification and Selection?

To attract, generate, and screen opportunities for a documented idea proposal.

30
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The document that charts a new product team's direction, goals, and 'rules of the road' is called the _____.

Product Innovation Charter (PIC)

31
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What two dimensions are used in the Innovation Risk Matrix to categorize risk?

Market Newness and Technology Newness.

32
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According to the Innovation Risk Matrix, a project with 'High' Market Newness and 'High' Technology Newness is labeled as _____.

Dangerous

33
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The General Motors EV1 (1996) is used as an example of what type of innovation risk?

High Market Newness

34
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The Dyson Electric Car project, cancelled after $\$2.7$B, is an example of _____.

High Firm Newness

35
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What are the three criteria for Product Portfolio Analysis?

Strategic Fit, Strategic Contribution, and Strategic Priority.

36
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In Product Portfolio Analysis, what does 'Strategic Fit' assess?

Whether the project fits the technology and market focus of the business strategy.

37
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True or False: A brand positioning statement is an advertisement meant for the public.

False (it is an internal strategic document).

38
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List the four levels of a 'Benefit Ladder' from bottom to top.

Product Attributes, Functional Benefits, Emotional Benefits, Higher Order Identity.

39
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Why is it strategically better to position a brand further 'up' the benefit ladder?

The positioning becomes more defensible.

40
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In the FedEx benefit ladder example, what is the 'Higher Order Identity'?

Prestige and Security.

41
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In the FedEx benefit ladder example, 'Overnight Package Delivery' is classified as a _____.

Functional Benefit

42
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Why did Kodak eventually fail despite having 'Warm memories' as an emotional benefit?

It remained focused on film (attributes and functional benefits) rather than evolving.

43
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What 'Higher Order Identity' does Tillamook aim for in its brand ladder?

Savor life through food.

44
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When establishing brand positioning, what are 'Proof Points'?

What differentiates the brand and is something only the brand can own.

45
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What are three common barriers that prevent consumers from participating in certain markets?

Time, cost, and accessibility.

46
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According to Peter Koen, what is the 'sandbox' question managers should ask before specific products?

"What sandbox should I be playing in?"

47
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What is the primary purpose of the 'Special Guidelines' section in a PIC?

To provide 'rules of the road' or strategic constraints for the team.

48
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In product innovation, what is 'Form'?

The physical thing created or the sequence of steps for a service.

49
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In product innovation, what is 'Technology'?

The source or means by which the product's form was attained.

50
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A 'Product Concept' is a potential product formed by the meeting of at least _____ of the three inputs (Form, Technology, Benefit).

Two

51
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Why is putting 'Benefit' last in the innovation process considered risky?

It results in a solution trying to find a problem.

52
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Google Glass is cited as an example of an innovation that had Form and Technology but lacked what?

Added Benefit (especially considering the price).

53
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What is a 'Product Concept Statement' designed to provide to potential customers?

Information regarding the product's benefit, form, and technology (or at least two of them).

54
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Phase 1 of the new products process is _____ in nature.

Strategic

55
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At the end of the Concept Generation phase, what is the primary evaluation task?

Initial Review: Does the idea pass the initial screen and go to concept development?

56
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The 'Full Screen' evaluation happens at the end of which phase?

Concept/Project Evaluation

57
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During the 'Development' phase, what is the key marketing-related question?

"Should we market it? And if so, how?"

58
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Define an 'Opportunity Concept' as it relates to Phase 1 of the New Products Process.

A company skill, resource, or a customer problem that identifies a path for innovation.

59
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What is a 'Stated Concept'?

A form or technology combined with a clear statement of benefit.

60
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The 'Predevelopment' period of innovation typically encompasses which three phases of the new products process?

Opportunity Identification, Concept Generation, and Concept/Project Evaluation.

61
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What does the 'Launch' phase include besides the actual product release?

Management of the product postlaunch to ensure it reaches its objectives.

62
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What are the three main strategic elements that provide the framework for new product management?

The new products process, the product innovation charter (PIC), and product portfolio management.

63
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In the Situation Assessment, 'customer concentration' and 'influence' are evaluated under which category?

Customers & Channels

64
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In the Context of attributes, what constitutes 'Source Ingredients' and 'Manufacturing Process'?

Features

65
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The 'Economic gains' or 'Savings' a user experiences are categorized as which type of attribute?

Benefits

66
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What is the primary difference between a 'product' and a 'service' in terms of 'Form'?

A product is a physical thing; a service is a sequence of steps by which it is created.

67
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Why might a firm start the innovation process with 'Technology' first?

They have a proprietary technology and search for a market group with a need it can meet.

68
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In the Innovation Risk Matrix, what level of risk is associated with 'Some' Market Newness and 'None' Technology Newness?

Low

69
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A Product Innovation Charter (PIC) is often compared to which corporate document, but at a micro level?

Mission Statement

70
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Which phase is concerned with 'Technical Questions' like "Have we developed the product?"?

Development

71
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What term describes markets that offer alternative solutions to the same customer need but are not the exact same product category?

Adjacent or substitute categories.

72
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What is the goal of the 'Postlaunch Evaluation' task?

To determine how the product is performing relative to its original objectives.

73
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According to Ken Hakuta, what is the primary obstacle to innovation rather than a lack of money?
The lack of an idea.
74
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What term describes the initial, often chaotic phase of the product development process before formal development begins?
The Fuzzy Front-End.
75
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In the context of market studies, what category includes Problem/Solution Ideas and Market Sweeps?
Directed market studies.
76
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In the context of market studies, what category includes Attitudes and Usage (A&U) of a target group and Observation/Ethnography?
Undirected market studies.
77
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What 'Greenfield Market' strategy is illustrated by moving a Starbucks from a standalone building into a grocery store kiosk?
Finding another location or venue.
78
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The Situation Assessment examines six aspects along a continuum of _____ and _____ factors.
External; internal.
79
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List the three purely 'External' aspects of a Situation Assessment.
Market Trends and Dynamics, Competition, and Consumers.
80
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Which Situation Assessment aspect evaluates sales units, revenue, profit, and margin trends?
Current Business Performance.
81
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Which Situation Assessment aspect focuses on sources of advantage or disadvantage in the marketplace?
Internal Capabilities.
82
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When defining a market category, what frames the market from the demand side?
Specifying the customer and the need.
83
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How should a product category be described when identifying the product type?
In terms of product attributes.
84
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What is the purpose of 'Setting Boundaries' when defining a market scope?
To clarify what is included in the market and what is excluded.
85
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What term refers to markets that offer alternative solutions to a customer's need but are not exactly the same as yours?
Adjacent or substitute categories.
86
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What does the acronym TAM represent in market sizing?
Total Addressable Market.
87
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Formula: Bottom-up Total Addressable Market (TAM)
$TAM = \# \text{ Customers} \times \text{Avg. Annual Spend}$
88
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What does the acronym SAM represent in market sizing?
Serviceable Addressable Market.
89
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Which market sizing metric represents the share a company can realistically win within 1 to 3 years?
SOM (Serviceable Obtainable Market).
90
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Market sizing that starts with published reports and tailors them to a specific scope is called _____ analysis.
Top Down
91
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In a SWOT analysis, which two categories represent internal factors?
Strengths and Weaknesses.
92
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In a SWOT analysis, which two categories represent external factors?
Opportunities and Threats.
93
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What is the first step in the Problem Analysis process for new products?
Determine the product or activity category for study.
94
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In the 'Bothersomeness Technique' for scoring problems, what is the formula for column C?
$A \times B$ (Frequency multiplied by Bothersomeness).
95
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What scenario analysis technique involves following 'trend people' or 'trend areas'?
Extending scenario analysis.
96
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What is the primary difference between 'extending' and 'leaping' in scenario analysis?
Extending uses seed trends, while leaping involves radical shifts or technological changeovers.
97
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What type of study measures how consumers use a category and identify 'white spots' in the market?
Usage & Attitude (U&A) Study.
98
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What is the primary purpose of a MaxDiff exercise in product management?
To quantitatively identify which benefits, features, or attributes matter most to consumers.
99
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According to MaxDiff best practices, how many well-defined attributes should typically be included?
10 to 20 attributes.
100
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Why should price typically be excluded from a standard MaxDiff attribute list?
To prevent it from overwhelming other functional or emotional benefits in the trade-off analysis.