Patho - Bone Disorders

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Last updated 1:38 PM on 4/12/26
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109 Terms

1
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A fracture is a defect in

the continuity of a bone

2
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A fracture ranges from

small crack → complex w/ multi segments

3
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Which of the following is not 1 of the 4 general categories of fractures?

Sufficiency

4
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A traumatic fracture is caused by sudden impact into

something more dense than you

5
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Stress fractures can be a partial break (________) or complete break (_______) in the bone.

reaction; fracture

6
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Stress fractures are caused by the bone’s inability to

w/stand stress applied

in a rhythmic, repeated, microtraumatic fashion

7
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A stress fracture occurs when a normal bone is exposed to

repeated, abnormal stress

8
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for stress fracture?

Male

9
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___________ factors (peak impact, active, and breaking GRF) do not predict stress factors.

biomechanical

10
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Which populations are stress fractures commonly found in?

Military Trainees

Marathoners

11
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Female recruits are at increased risk for stress fractures in which location?

pelvic/sacral

12
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Stress factors does NOT usually occur in:

Metacarpal bones

13
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What are the two types of stress fractures that can occur?

Compressive and Distractive

14
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Compressive stress factors =

Forceful heel strike

during prolonged march or run

15
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Distractive stress factor =

Repetitive muscle pull

16
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What may indicate a stress factor in a patient's history?

training

17
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Patient with a stress fracture will NOT typically present with which of the following?

DEC pain on WB

18
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Which motion may not be painful for a stress fracture?

AROM

19
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Insufficiency stress fracture results from

normal stress or force acting on bone

20
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Normal stress/force acting on bone may result in an insufficiency stress fracture due to

deficient elastic resistance or

bone weakened by DEC mineralization

21
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Bone deficiency in an insufficiency stress fracture is NOT secondary to:

Premenopausal

22
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an insufficiency stress fracture is typically insidious or result of

minor trauma

23
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What has been proposed to provide enough trauma to transmit a traumatic force to a compromised structure to cause an insufficiency stress fracture?

weight bearing

24
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What is the most common osteoporosis related fragility fracture (~700,000 injuries per year)?

Vertebral Compression Fracture (insufficiency)

25
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Only 20-25% of people who sustain a VCF seek

medial treatment

26
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VCF often occur with ONLY

minor trauma

27
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for a Vertebral Compression Fracture?

high levels of daily PA

28
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A pathological stress fracture occurs in

bone rendered abnormally fragile by neoplastic or other conditions

29
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Where does a pathological stress fracture occur?

at the site of a bone tumor

30
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Fractures can be described based on the orientation;

Transverse, Oblique, Spiral, Comminuted

31
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Bone mass reaches maximum size and density by

~30yrs

32
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__________ lose bone mass sooner than _______.

Women (in late 30s)

perimenopausal / accelerating after menopause

men (in mid-late 60s)

33
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Women lose bone mass sooner (in late 30s) due to

perimenopausal years and menopause

34
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Which of the following is not one of the cancellous bone more susceptible to bone loss and fractures?

teeth

35
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Most common traumatic fractures are associated with sudden impact injuries:

Assault, Abuse, Traumatic falls, MVA

36
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Which upper extremit(ies) fractures account for the largest percentage?

radius/ulna

37
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Which age group is most affected by upper extremity fractures ussually secondary to an accidental fall at home?

Children ages 5 to 14

38
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What is an important risk factor for fractures?

Age

39
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Which of the following is not associated with AGE-RELATED risk factors for fractures?

Increased bone mineral density

40
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Rate of hip fracture increases at

age 50, doubling every 5-6 years

41
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Women often have ______ fracture rates and ______ likely to develop osteoporosis than men

higher; more

42
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Caucasians have _______ rates of fractures than African- American’s of the same gender.

higher

43
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Other risks factors for fractures include all of the following except;

Muscle strength

44
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Fracture heals in expected amount of time but in an unsatisfactory position is considered:

malunion

45
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The fracture heals but it takes considerably longer is considered

delayed union

46
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Fracture fails to heal is considered

Non-union

47
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What is usually enough to confirm a fracture?

X-Ray

48
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Which type of fracture is often missed with an x-ray alone?

stress fractures

49
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What should be used in addition to x-ray for a stress fracture?

MRI or Radionuclide Bone Scan (Scintigraphy)

50
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What is an imaging technique of choice is used to identify pathologic fracture?

CT Imaging

51
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Treatment for a fracture is NOT based

Functional requirements of unaffected individual

52
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What treatment is used for a stress fracture?

Rest

53
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What treatment is used for a comminuted, unstable fracture?

immediate surgery

54
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Typically, fractures will heal in _______ in children

4-6 weeks

55
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Typically, fractures will heal in _______ in adolescents.

6-8 weeks

56
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Typically, fractures will heal in _______ in adults.

10-18 weeks

57
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How long does it take for full restoration of bone after a fracture?

months

(nonunion up to 10% of all)

58
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Which structure usually have the highest rate of nonunion complications?

hip

59
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______ more likely to die in 1 st year after hip fracture compared to same individual without a hip fracture.

4x

60
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The risk of death due to hip fractures increases up to how long post fracture?

up to 5 years

61
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Delay in suregery ________ mortality risks of hip fractures.

increases

62
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What percentage of people regain full prior level of function following a hip fracture?

less than 50%

63
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What is the strongest predictor for mortality following hip fracture?

inability to stand, sit, or walk 2 weeks after surgery

64
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At least 1 of every __ adults >65yo will fall at least once during the next year.

4

65
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Which of the folloiwing is not associated with falls?

Unipharmacy

66
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Fall prevention is a large part of health and wellness directed towards

the geriatric population

67
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Treatment of fractures is dependent on

type and surgical recs

68
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initial period of rest for a fracture to allow for what two things

phagocytic removal of necrotic bone

& deposition of fibrocartilaginous callus

69
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What is NOT a focus of treatment during the initial period of rehab for a fracture?

Maintain MMT of affected joints

70
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Salter-Harris is defined as a fracture that involves

epiphyseal plate

71
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What is the only population affected by salter harris fracture?

pediatric

72
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1/5 types of Salter-Harris fracture (SALTER)

I –Slipped epiphysis

73
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2/5 types of Salter-Harris fracture (SALTER)

II –Above the growth plate

74
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3/5 types of Salter-Harris fracture (SALTER)

III – Lower than the growth plate

75
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4/5 types of Salter-Harris fracture (SALTER)

IV – Through Everything

76
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5/5 types of Salter-Harris fracture (SALTER)

V – Raised epiphysis (crush)

77
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A greenstick fracture is where only ______ and ________ are interrupted on one side, while the other remains uninterrupted.

the cortex; periosteum

78
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An immature skeleton is more _____ thus susceptible to Green-Stick Fracture.

pilable

79
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Green-Stick Fracture is considered to be result of

“bending” of the bone

80
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Nightstick fracture is isolated to

the ulna

81
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What is a nightstick fracture secondary to?

a direct blow on ulna

(a defensive injury)

82
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Nightstick fracture is typically a _______ fracture with a high rate ________.

closed; delyed or nonunion

83
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Osteonecrosis refers to death of bone and bone marrow cellular components as a result of

loss of blood supply

84
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Osteonecrosis aka

Avascular necrosis (AVN)

Aseptic necrosis

85
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Which of the following is the most common site for osteonecrosis?

femoral head

86
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What are other common sites for osteonecrosis?

Scaphoid, Talus, Prox humerus, Tibial plateau

87
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Typically through trauma or thrombosis, blood supply during osteonecrosis needs to be cut off for

at least 2 hours

88
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Risk factors of fatty emboli obstructing blood flow in osteonecrosis include all of the following except:

smoking

89
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Which population is 100x more likely to develop an AVN?

individuals with HIV

90
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Which of the following is NOT a bone that is more susceptible to AVN than others?

Limited coverage of cartilage

91
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Patients with osteonecrosis during initial development are typically

symptom free

92
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Which of the following is not a usual complaint of pain of patients with osteonecrosis?

Acute onset

93
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Which od the following would not be expected with a patient that has osteoneecrosis located in the FEMUR?

P! provocation occurs w/ NWB and hip ROM (esp “FADIR”).

94
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Diagnosis of osteonecrosis includes

– Made by plain films initially

– Bone scan, MRI, and CT can detect much more subtle bony changes.

95
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What does treatment depend on with osteonecrosis?

lesion size, early diagnosis, bony collapse

96
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What are the surgical options of Osteonecrosis?

Core decompression (early diagnosis)

Joint replacement (late diagnosis)

97
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Osgood-Schlatter Disease results from

patellar tendon pulling small bits of immature bone from tibial tuberosity

98
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Osgood-Schlatter Disease is commonly seen in

adolescent boys ages 10-15 (INC in females)

99
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Osgood-Schlatter Disease results from

indirect trauma / Repetitive stress

100
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Indirect trauma for Osgood-Schlatter Disease

Powerful contraction of quadriceps during an activity