IT 110 Midterm Qs

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Last updated 9:11 PM on 10/20/24
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129 Terms

1
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The seventh layer of the OSI model is the ____ layer.

Application

2
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If the message is too large to transport on the network, TCP divides it into smaller messages called _________

segments

3
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Switches operate at which layer of the OSI model?

Data Link layer

4
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A computer that is dedicated to sharing data and managing resources is called a _________.

Server

5
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A _____ is a central conduit that connects the segments (pieces) of a network

backbone

6
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Encryption of data is the function of which OSI layer?

Presentation

7
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A computer that shares files or provides access to a device such as a printer that other computers can use is called a __________.

Host

8
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A workstation that is connected to a network and accesses files or other network resources is called a _____________.

Client

9
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A device that is connected to a network that is identified by a unique number and works as an individual part of the network is called a _______.

Node

10
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When you go to a company's Web site to look up product information, what service are you using?

Client-Server

11
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What is the three letter acronym for a network that serves just your office?

LAN

12
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The part inside a networked device that attaches the device to the network is called a __________.

NIC or Network Interface Card

13
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What is a PDU called at the Link layer?

Frame

14
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Which of the following protocols is used by a client to send an email message?

SMTP

15
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A network that is larger than a LAN and connects clients and servers from multiple buildings is known as a ____.

MAN (metropolitan area network)

16
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Which type of address is a MAC address?

Physical

17
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What is the three letter acronym for a network that stretches over a large geographical area?

WAN

18
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At which OSI layer does IP operate?

Network layer

19
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Network communication uses both network address and physical addresses. Which type of address is TCP/IP address?

Network

20
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Protocols in the ____layer accept data from the Session layer and manage end-to-end delivery of data.

Transport

21
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When ou log onto a server or domain, what service are you using?

Access

22
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A network that is larger than a LAN and connects clients and servers from multiple buildings is known as a(n) ____.

MAN (metropolitan area network)

23
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When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used?

100 meters

24
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Which of the following terms best describe the first point of interconnection between an organization's LAN or WAN and a service provider's facility?

MDF

25
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During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced?

No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

26
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What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs?

vertical cross connect

27
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In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines?

VoIP gateway

28
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A dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway, is known by what term?

VoIP PBX (private branch exchange)

29
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What kind of document serves as a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided to a customer?

service-level agreement

30
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What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility?

Zenmap

31
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Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?

in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

32
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When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch?

An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.

33
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What standard describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system?

TIA/EIA-568

34
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What statement accurately describes what a cable bend radius determines?

A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data

35
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What does backbone cabling consist of?

The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs.

36
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_____ is a junction point between the MDF and end-user equipment.

IDF

37
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Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company?

master license agreement

38
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What component of enterprise level structured cabling serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling?

entrance facility

39
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What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch?

A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.

40
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Which of the following is a document that is sent as a request to vendors to submit a proposal for a product or service that your company wants to purchase?

request for proposal

41
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In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting?

at least 3 feet

42
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What type of diagram is a graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure?

wiring schematic

43
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Equipment data racks most commonly are a standard width of what measurement?

19 inches

44
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In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded?

No more than four times the diameter of the cable.

45
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What is NOT a TIA/EIA recognized cabling type that can be used for horizontal cabling?

RG-6 Coaxial

46
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What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate?

The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN.

47
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How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address?

The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.

48
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What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed?

ipconfig /all

49
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Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address?

127.0.0.1

50
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Which of the following IPv6 addresses represents a global unicast address?

2000::/3

51
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In the classful addressing scheme, what range of network addresses is considered a Class B?

128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y

52
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A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem?

ipconfig /flushdns

53
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Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks?

127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255

54
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What part of a MAC address serves as the extension identifier, or device ID?

The last 24 bits of the MAC address.

55
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At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host?

port numbers

56
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With a FQDN of ftp1.dallas.mycompany.com, what part is the domain name?

mycompany.com

57
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Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean?

Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.

58
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Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.

They do not forward broadcast traffic.

59
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You are troubleshooting a network issue on a client computer and discover that the network card has an IP address of 169.254.196.200. What does this mean?

The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address.

60
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In the DNS hierarchy, where is information about how to find the top-level domain servers held?

On the DNS root servers.

61
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In a DNS zone, what type of record holds the name-to-address mapping for IPv6 addresses?

AAAA record

62
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What is the ARPA domain suffix utilized for?

It is used for reverse DNS queries, and holds PTR records.

63
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You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate?

EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers.

64
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What is routing protocol convergence time defined as?

It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.

65
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What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field?

It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission.

66
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Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to protocol type?

netstat -s

67
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When using the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), what is the maximum number of hops a message can take between its source and its destination before the destination is considered unreachable?

15

68
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What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol?

Framing

69
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What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?

The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.

70
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Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com?

traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com

71
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What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet?

Differentiated Services (DiffServ)

72
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The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?

TCP

73
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In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to?

flow label

74
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Which routing protocol started as a Cisco proprietary protocol and combines some of the features of a link-state protocol with that of distance-vector protocols?

EIGRP

75
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What command will list only current connections, including IP addresses and port numbers?

netstat -n

76
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You are connected to your network's Cisco router, and need to verify the route table. What command should you enter?

show ip route

77
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Which of the following is not a task handled by a router?

A router forwards broadcasts over the network.

78
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In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before acknowledgment is received?

sliding-window

79
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Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols?

link-state protocols

80
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What utility is the equivalent to the pathping command on a Linux system?

mtr

81
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Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate?

BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates.

82
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What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic?

tcpdump port 22

83
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A Fast Ethernet connection utilizes what pins on an RJ-45 plug?

1, 2, 3, 6

84
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Bidirectional transceivers utilize what technology to separate the data in each direction?

wavelength division multiplexing

85
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What statement regarding the Power Over Ethernet standards is inaccurate?

Power over Ethernet requires CAT6 or better copper cable.

86
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In a coaxial cabling, what does the RG rating measure?

The materials used for shielding and conducting cores.

87
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The materials used for shielding and conducting cores.

8 degrees

88
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Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit?

decibels

89
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A junior administrator is having issues connecting to a router's console port using a TIA/EIA 568B standard cable and a USB serial to RJ-45 adapter, despite verifying terminal settings. What is the issue?

The cable must be a rollover cable.

90
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The cable must be a rollover cable.

registered jack 11 (RJ-11)

91
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Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is?

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

92
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What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?

coarse wavelength division multiplexing

93
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Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable?

RG-6

94
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What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation?

A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.

95
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Which of the following statements correctly describes the SFP+ transceiver?

SFP+ is the same size as SFP, and supports a theoretical maximum transmission speed of 16 Gbps.

96
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PoE+ devices are defined by what IEEE standard?

802.3at

97
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What statement correctly describes "jitter"?

Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order.

98
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What is the maximum supported throughput of a CAT6 cable?

10 Gbps

99
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A typical fiber termination kit should include what tool for cutting a clean slice through fiber strands?

fiber cleaver

100
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Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal?

simplex