Week 5: Ch 5 (7,12): Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes

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Last updated 4:43 AM on 4/30/26
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70 Terms

1
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Chromosomes are the unit of transmission in meiosis, not genes

________ can not undergo independent assortment

Frequency of ________ on a single chromosome is proportional to distance between them

Crossing over results in ______

_______: indicate relative location of genes on chromosome

  • Linked genes

  • crossing over

  • recombination

  • Chromosome maps

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Genes Linked on the Same Chromosome Segregate ______.

  • Together

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______ consequences

– Independent assortment (No linkage exhibited)

– Linkage without crossing over (_______)

– Linkage with crossing over (Generates recombinant (crossover) gametes)

  • Meiotic

  • Complete linkage

<ul><li><p>Meiotic</p></li><li><p>Complete linkage</p></li></ul><p></p>
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_______

– No crossing over between two genes

– Produces ——— (noncrossover) gametes

_______

– Occurs between two nonsister chromatids

– Both parental and recombinant (crossover) gametes are produced

  • Complete linkage

  • parental

  • Crossing over

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_______

– Complete linkage between two genes due to close proximity

– Unique F2 phenotypic ratio results

_______

– Genes on the same chromosome are part of this

– Number of linkage groups should correspond to haploid number of chromosomes

  • Linkage ratio

  • Linkage group

<ul><li><p>Linkage ratio</p></li><li><p>Linkage group</p></li></ul><p></p>
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Crossing Over Serves as the Basis for Determining the ______ between Genes in Chromosome Mapping

  • Distance

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______

– Synapsed chromosomes in meiosis wrap around each other

– X-shaped intersections with points of overlap

Points of genetic exchange

  • Chiasmata

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Two genes located close to each other along a chromosome are less likely to have _____.

  • chiasma

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Sturtevant

– Compiled data from crosses

– Recombination frequencies between linked genes are ______

– Frequency of exchange is estimate of relative distance between two genes

  • additive

<ul><li><p>additive</p></li></ul><p></p>
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______

– 1 percent recombination between two genes on chromosome

– Also called ______

– Relative distances, not exact ones

  • Map unit (mu)

  • centi-Morgans (cM)

<ul><li><p>Map unit (mu)</p></li><li><p>centi-Morgans (cM)</p></li></ul><p></p>
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_______

– Occurs between two nonsister chromatids

– Recombination is observed in 50 percent of gametes

– In genes 50 map units apart, crossing over can be expected between 100 percent of tetrads

  • Single crossover (SCO)

<ul><li><p>Single crossover (SCO)</p></li></ul><p></p>
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SCO is _____ between two nonsister chromatids in tetrad stage

– ______ gametes produced

– ______ gametes produced

  • Single exchange

  • Two noncrossover (parental)

  • Two crossover (recombinant)

<ul><li><p>Single exchange</p></li><li><p>Two noncrossover (parental)</p></li><li><p>Two crossover (recombinant)</p></li></ul><p></p>
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_____ crossover

– Used to determine distance between two linked genes

_____ crossover

– Double exchanges of genetic material

– Used to determine distance between three linked genes

– Genes must be _____ for two alleles

  • Single

  • Double

  • heterozygous

<ul><li><p>Single</p></li><li><p>Double</p></li><li><p>heterozygous</p></li></ul><p></p>
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Three criteria of three-point mapping:

– Parent must be heterozygous for all three genes under consideration

– Phenotypic class must reflect genotype of gametes of parents

– Sufficient number of offspring must be produced for representative sample

<p>– Parent must be heterozygous for all three genes under consideration</p><p>– Phenotypic class must reflect genotype of gametes of parents</p><p>– Sufficient number of offspring must be produced for representative sample</p>
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______ phenotypes

– Occur in greatest proportion of offspring

______ phenotypes

– Occur in the smallest proportion

  • Noncrossover F2

  • Double-crossover (DCO)

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_____ classes of phenotypes

– F2 phenotypes complement each other

Derived from heterozygote

Have wild type and mutant for all three genes

  • Reciprocal

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Determining gene sequence:

– Method 1 based on ______

– Method 2 uses _____ and Also considers _____

  • three possible arrangements of genes

  • three possible arrangements

  • double-crossover event

<ul><li><p>three possible arrangements of genes</p></li><li><p>three possible arrangements</p></li><li><p>double-crossover event</p></li></ul><img src="https://assets.knowt.com/user-attachments/5941e9da-8e4a-47f5-a74a-d5007e266331.png" data-width="75%" data-align="center"><p></p>
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As the Distance between Two Genes Increases, Mapping Estimates Become _____.

  • More Inaccurate

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_______

– Inhibition of further crossover events

– Inhibited by another crossover event nearby

– Reduces expected number of multiple crossovers

  • Interference

  • Interference: I = 1 − C

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______: Calculated to quantify disparities that result from interference

  • Coefficient of coincidence (C)

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Interference

– _____ when no double crossovers occur

– _____: Fewer double-crossover events than expected occur

I is a positive number

– ______: More double-crossover events than expected occur

I is a negative number

  • Complete

  • Positive

  • Negative

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Large number of mutants in organisms such as

– ______

• Allows for construction of extensive chromosome mapping

  • Drosophila

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_______

– Relies on probability calculations

– Demonstrates linkage between two genes when linkage analysis relies primarily on pedigrees

– Assesses probability that pedigree with two traits reflects genetic linkage between them

Lod score method

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________

– Made possible the assigning of human genes to their respective chromosomes

– Involves fusing two cells into a single hybrid cell: ______

  • Somatic cell hybridization

  • heterokaryon

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________:

– Heterokaryons cultured in vivo—nuclei are fused together

  • Synkaryon

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________

– Presence or absence of each chromosome, with presence or absence of each gene product

– Four gene products tested in relation to eight human chromosomes

  • Synteny testing

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_______

– Short segments of DNA with known sequence and location

– Useful landmarks for mapping

– Earliest examples of DNA markers:

  • DNA markers

  • RFLPs and microsatellites

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RFLPs: ____-___

– Polymorphic sites

– Generated when specific DNA sequences are recognized and cut by restriction enzyme

• Microsatellites

– Short repetitive sequences

– Found throughout genome

  • Restriction fragment length polymorphisms

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SNPs: _______

– Found throughout genome

– Used by geneticists to identify and locate related genes

– Used to screen for diseases

Example: ______

  • Single-nucleotide polymorphisms

  • Cystic fibrosis

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________

– Gene located by using DNA markers

– Life-shortening autosomal recessive exocrine disorder

– Gene causing disorder found on chromosome 7

  • Cystic fibrosis

31
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Genetic mapping techniques used to study relationship between _______.

• Mapping in maize

– Used ________

– Established crossing over involves a physical exchange of chromosome regions

  • chiasmata and crossing over

  • cytological markers

<ul><li><p>chiasmata and crossing over</p></li><li><p>cytological markers</p><p></p></li></ul><p></p>
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_______ occur during mitosis but do not produce new allelic combinations.

  • Sister chromatid exchanges (SCEs)

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________

– Reciprocal exchanges similar to crossing over

– Between sister chromatids (crossing over is between NONsisters)

_______ chromosomes

– Sister chromatids involved in mitotic exchanges

– Patch-like appearance when stained and viewed under a microscope

  • SCEs: Sister chromatid exchanges

  • Harlequin

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Agents that induce chromosome damage

– ________

– Increase frequency of sister chromatid exchange in Bloom syndrome

______

– Human disorder

– Caused by mutation in ______ chromosome 15

– Prenatal and postnatal retardation of growth

– Excessive SCEs

– Many translocations

  • Viruses, X-rays, UV, mutagens

  • Bloom syndrome

  • BLM gene

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BLM gene

– Encodes enzyme ______

– DNA helicase’s known role is _____

– Not known how it causes ______

  • DNA helicase

  • DNA replication

  • Bloom Syndrome

36
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In animals, including humans, differentiation of sexes is evident via _____

_____ chromosomes

– Dissimilar

– Example: Sex chromosomes X and Y

________

– Characterize one sex or the other in a wide range of species

________

– By specific genes not entire chromosomes

  • phenotypic dimorphism

  • Heteromorphic

  • Sex chromosomes

  • Sex determination

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Mode of sex determination: _____

– _____ of sex determination

– Depends on random distribution of X chromosome into half of male gametes

– Presence of _____ chromosomes in zygote results in female offspring

– Presence of _____ chromosome results in male offspring

  • Protenor

  • XX/XO mode

  • two X

  • one X

38
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______ of sex determination

– ______ of sex determination

– Female gametes have one X chromosome

– Male gametes have either an X or Y chromosome

  • Lygaeus mode

  • XX/XY mode

<ul><li><p>Lygaeus mode</p></li><li><p>XX/XY mode</p></li></ul><p></p>
39
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_____ sex

– Producing like chromosomes

– Zygotes with two X chromosomes

– Results in female offspring

______ sex

– Producing unlike chromosomes

– Zygotes with one X and one Y chromosome

– Results in male offspring

  • Homogametic

  • Heterogametic

40
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Females as ______ sex

–_______ sex determination

– Females are the heterogametic (ZW) sex

– Males are the homogametic (ZZ) sex

– Example: Chickens

  • heterogametic

  • ZZ/ZW

<ul><li><p>heterogametic</p></li><li><p>ZZ/ZW</p></li></ul><p></p>
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_______ determines maleness

– Human karyotype

22 pairs of autosomal chromosomes

2 sex chromosomes

Reveals one pair of chromosomes differs in males

and females

– Females: XX

– Males: XY

  • Y chromosome

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______ syndrome

– Two human abnormalities

– Characterized by aberrant sexual development

– Both syndromes result from _____

Failure of X chromosomes to segregate during meiosis

  • Klinefelter and Turner

  • nondisjunction

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________

– Tall, long arms and legs

– Large hands and feet

– Internal ducts are male, rudimentary testes fail to produce sperm

– Feminine development not suppressed

Enlarged breasts common, rounded hips

  • Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)

<ul><li><p>Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)</p></li></ul><p></p>
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______

– Phenotypically female

Female external genitalia and internal ducts

Ovaries are rudimentary

Underdeveloped breasts

– Short stature

– Cognitive impairment

  • Turner syndrome (45,X)

<ul><li><p>Turner syndrome (45,X)</p></li></ul><p></p>
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_________

– Three X chromosomes

– Normal set of autosomes

– Results in female differentiation

– Sometimes women are perfectly normal

– Sometimes underdeveloped secondary sex characteristics occur

Sterility and mental retardation

-47,XXX syndrome: Triplo-X

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_______

– Only consistently shared characteristic—males are over 6 feet tall

– Subnormal intelligence

– Personality disorders

  • 47,XYY condition

47
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_______

– The tissues that will form the gonad

By the fifth week of gestation, a pair of gonadal (genital) ridges associated with each embryonic kidney

Gonadal phenotype is sexually indifferent

– Primordial germ cells migrate to ridges

_______

– Gonadal ridges can form either ovaries or testes

  • Gonadal primordia

  • Bipotential gonads

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Y chromosome and male development

– Y chromosome has at least ____ genes

– _____ genes than X chromosome (100 genes)

PARs: Pseudoautosomal regions

– Present on both ends of Y chromosome

– Share homology with regions on X chromosome

– Synapse and recombine with X during meiosis

  • 50

  • Fewer

49
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Pairing region critical to segregation of X and Y chromosomes during male gametogenesis

_________

– Nonrecombining region of Y chromosome

_______

– Located adjacent to PAR of the short arm of Y chromosome

– Controls male development

– Encodes protein: ______

  • MSY: Male-specific region of the Y

  • SRY: Sex-determining region Y

  • Testis-determining factor (TDF)

<ul><li><p>MSY: Male-specific region of the Y</p></li><li><p>SRY: Sex-determining region Y</p></li><li><p>Testis-determining factor (TDF)</p></li></ul><p></p>
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TDF: Testis-determining factor

– At 6–8 weeks of development, _____ gene becomes active in XY embryos

– Encodes protein that triggers testes formation

  • SRY

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MSY: Male-specific region Y

23 million base pairs

Divided into three regions

– _______ region (15 percent of MSY)

– ________ region (20 percent)

– _______ region (30 percent)

Encodes proteins specific to development and function of testis

  • X-transposed

  • X-degenerative

  • Ampliconic

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_______

– Genetic mechanism

– Balances dose of X chromosome gene expression in males and females

– Prevents excessive expression of X-linked genes in humans and other mammals

  • Dosage compensation

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________

– Genetic mechanism compensates for X dosage disparities

– Inactive X chromosome, highly condensed

– Darkly stained body in interphase nerve cells observed: _____

– Random inactivation

– Occurs early in embryonic development

  • Barr bodies (sex chromatin bodies)

  • Barr bodies

<ul><li><p>Barr bodies (sex chromatin bodies)</p></li><li><p>Barr bodies</p></li></ul><p></p>
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______

– Explains dosage compensation

– Follows N − 1 rule (N = total number of X chromosomes)

– Then why do we have Turner and Kleinfelter syndromes?

  • X-inactivation

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Why does X-inactivation not affect syndromes such as Turner or Klinefelter?

– Chromosome inactivation not in early stages of development for cells destined for gonadal tissue

– Not all X chromosomes forming Barr bodies are inactivated

15% escape inactivation

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______

– Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

– Synthesis of G6PD enzyme controlled by X-linked gene

– Experiment with G6PD mutants provides strong support of Lyon hypothesis

Random permanent inactivation of X chromosome

  • G6PD

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______

– Active only on inactive X

– Has ______ gene critical for X-inactivation

– Two noncoding genes in ____ locus

_____ play important roles in X chromosome inactivation

  • Xic: X inactivation center

  • X-inactive specific transcript (XIST)

  • Xic

  • Tsix and Xite

<ul><li><p>Xic: X inactivation center</p></li><li><p>X-inactive specific transcript (XIST)</p></li><li><p>Xic</p></li><li><p>Tsix and Xite</p></li></ul><p></p>
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_____

– At interphase, eukaryotic chromosomes uncoil and decondense into a form called chromatin

– During interphase, chromatin is dispersed throughout nucleus

– During cell division, chromatin coils and condenses back into visible chromosomes

Chromatin

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______

– Positively charged proteins associated with chromosomal DNA in eukaryotes

– Contain large amounts of lysine and arginine

– Makes electrostatic bonding to negatively charged phosphate possible

• Five main types of histones

– H1, H2A, H2B, H3, and H4

  • Histones

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_____

– Electron microscopic observations of chromatin revealed fibers composed of linear array of these spherical particles

– Resemble beads on a string

– Are condensed several times to form intact chromatids

  • Nucleosomes

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_____

– Resemble beads on a string

– Are condensed several times to form intact chromatids

  • Nucleosomes

<ul><li><p>Nucleosomes</p></li></ul><p></p>
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Twists and turns of DNA ____ encircle histones

Principal packaging unit of DNA in eukaryotic nucleus

Unstructured _____ are not packed into folded histone domains within nucleosome

– Tails devoid of secondary structure protrude through minor groove

  • superhelix

  • histone tails

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_______ are important to genetic function

• Histone tails provide potential targets along chromatin fiber for chemical modifications

______

  • Chemical modifications

  • – Acetylation

    – Methylation

    – Phosphorylation

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_______

– Enzyme histone acetyltransferase (HAT)

– Addition of acetyl group to positively charged amino group on side chain (lysine) changes net charge of protein by neutralizing positive charge

Acetylation

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_____

– Enzyme methyltransferase

– Adds methyl groups to arginine and lysine residues in histones

– Positive correlation with gene activity

Methylation

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______ of the nitrogenous base cytosine within polynucleotide chains of DNA

– Forms 5-methyl cytosine

– Usually negatively correlated with gene activity

  • Methylation

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______

– Region of DNA where many cytosine guanine dinucleotides are present

  • CpG island

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______

– Uncoiled and active

– Appears unstained during interphase

______

– Condensed areas are mostly inactive

– Appears stained during interphase

  • Euchromatin

  • Heterochromatin

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_______

– Genetically ______: lacks genes or contains repressed genes

– Replicates later in S phase than euchromatin

– Telomere maintains chromosome integrity

– Centromere involved in chromosome movement

  • Heterochromatin

  • inactive