Respiratory System and Thoracic Disorders Lecture Notes

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Comprehensive practice questions covering pneumonia classifications, COPD pathophysiology, pneumothorax types, pulmonary edema, OSA diagnostics, and thoracic injury nursing care.

Last updated 10:29 PM on 6/18/26
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50 Terms

1
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How is pneumonia defined based on the transcript?

An umbrella term for an infection of lung parenchyma caused by bacteria, fungi, or viruses, resulting in various manifestations.

2
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What is the specific timing window for diagnosing community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) after hospital admission?

Pneumonia diagnosed less than 48hr48\,hr after admission.

3
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How is hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP), also known as nosocomial pneumonia, defined?

Pneumonia acquired in the hospital setting at least 48hr48\,hr after admission.

4
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What characterizes ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

Pneumonia acquired 48hr48\,hr post-endotracheal tube intubation.

5
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What physiological mismatch occurs in pneumonia due to hypoventilation?

A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch.

6
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What is the difference between lobar pneumonia and bronchopneumonia?

Lobar pneumonia involves the entire lobe of the lung, while bronchopneumonia is settled around the bronchi and not localized to one lobe.

7
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Which three organisms are the most common causes of CAP requiring hospitalization?

Legionella, mycoplasma, and chlamydia.

8
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What is the most common bacterial cause of CAP in the United States?

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

9
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What three factors lead to the development of a bronchospasm?

Inflammation, edema, and excess mucus production.

10
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What is an open pneumothorax often called when air passes freely through a chest wound?

A sucking chest wound.

11
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In what demographic does primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP) typically occur?

Young people, usually males, who are taller and thinner than average.

12
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What is the most common underlying cause for secondary spontaneous pneumothorax (SSP)?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

13
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What is an iatrogenic pneumothorax?

A type of traumatic pneumothorax that occurs because of diagnostic or therapeutic procedures.

14
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What defines a tension pneumothorax?

A condition where air enters the chest cavity, becomes trapped, and cannot be expelled.

15
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List four risk factors for primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP).

Smoking tobacco or cannabis, being tall and thin, family history of pneumothorax, and Marfan syndrome.

16
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What complications are specifically caused by a tension pneumothorax?

Severe hypotension and distended neck veins.

17
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What are the most common manifestations of a spontaneous pneumothorax?

Severe pleuritic chest pain that radiates to the shoulder and shortness of breath.

18
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At what age range does SSP most frequently occur?

Older clients between the ages of 60 to 65 years.

19
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What tool is used for diagnosis of a pneumothorax in trauma situations?

Extended focused abdominal sonography (E-FAST).

20
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How is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) defined?

A respiratory condition characterized by persistent respiratory manifestations and airflow limitation caused by noxious gas and/or particle exposure.

21
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What is the most important risk factor for developing COPD?

Smoking.

22
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What are the clinical requirements for a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis?

A productive cough lasting at least three months in two consecutive years, along with mucus overproduction and airway inflammation.

23
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What is the most common early manifestation of COPD?

Exertional dyspnea.

24
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What physical finding in severe COPD results from hyperinflation and limited lung elasticity?

Barrel chest (increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest).

25
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What is Hoover’s sign in COPD assessment?

The drawing in of the lower ribs while inhaling.

26
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What diagnostic test is the cornerstone for evaluating COPD and determining airflow limitation severity?

Spirometry (part of pulmonary function tests).

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What does the mnemonic CAPTURE stand for in COPD screening?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Assessment in Primary care To identify Undiagnosed Respiratory disease and Exacerbation risk.

28
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How many deaths are attributed to COPD worldwide annually?

Approximately 3.2 million3.2\text{ million} deaths.

29
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What does the term emphysema specifically refer to?

The permanent enlargement and destruction of the alveoli airspaces and walls.

30
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Which type of emphysema is commonly associated with an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

Panacinar emphysema.

31
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What three structures collectively form the acinus affected by emphysema?

Respiratory bronchioles, alveolar sacs and ducts, and alveoli.

32
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What is pulmonary edema?

The abnormal buildup of fluid in the interstitial spaces and alveoli of the lungs.

33
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What causes cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

Elevated hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries, usually from left ventricular dysfunction.

34
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What is the primary mechanism of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema?

An increase in the permeability of the pulmonary endothelium/capillary membrane.

35
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What are the Starling forces in the context of pulmonary fluid balance?

Structures within the capillaries, the interstitial hydraulic pressure, and the interstitial oncotic pressure.

36
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What type of sputum is a classic sign of severe pulmonary edema?

Pink frothy sputum.

37
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How does pulmonary edema impact gas exchange?

It increases the thickness of the alveolar wall and decreases the area of gas exchange, leading to hypoxia and hypercapnia.

38
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What pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) findings distinguish cardiogenic from noncardiogenic pulmonary edema?

PCWP is elevated in cardiogenic pulmonary edema and normal in noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.

39
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What is obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

A condition where the airway partially or completely collapses during sleep, leading to breathing pauses and oxygen drops.

40
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What anatomical structure is most commonly attributed to causing OSA?

The base of the tongue.

41
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What is the greatest risk factor for OSA?

Obesity.

42
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What diagnostic test is the gold standard for OSA?

Overnight polysomnography (PSG).

43
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What does the Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) score represent?

The number of obstructive hypopneas and apneas per hour while the client is asleep.

44
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How is a hemothorax defined?

Blood in the pleural space between the visceral and parietal pleura.

45
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What size chest tube is commonly used to treat a hemothorax?

2828 to 32 French32\text{ French} tube thoracostomy.

46
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What does continuous bubbling in a chest tube water-seal chamber indicate?

An air leak in the system.

47
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What are the indications for removing a chest tube?

Improved respiratory status, symmetrical chest rise/fall, decreased drainage, absence of bubbling in the water-seal during expiration, and improved x-ray results.

48
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What is status asthmaticus?

A life-threatening, rapid onset of a severe asthma episode characterized by hypoxemia, hypercarbia, and potential ventilatory failure.

49
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What antibody is central to activating allergic reactions in asthma?

Immunoglobulin E (IgE).

50
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What is the difference between diffusion and osmosis?

Diffusion is the movement of solutes from high to low concentration; osmosis is the movement of water from low solute to high solute concentration across a semi-permeable membrane.