Principles of Environmental Science Chapters 1 - 8 Test Bank // Prof James Reede

1. Environmental science is a

A. narrowly defined set of physical, life, and social sciences.

B. theoretical approach in interpreting the environment.

C. way to see the world in scientific terms.

D. systematic approach learning about the environment.

E. special set of problem-solving skills.

D

2. Most environmental problems result from

A. excessive pollution.

B. complex, interrelated problems.

C. technological development problems.

D. global warming.

E. urban degradation.

B

3. In explaining your choice of an environmental science major in college to your

roommate, you would probably emphasize the fact that environmental science is a(n)

A. applied interdisciplinary field concerning the environment with an emphasis on solving

problems.

B. well-established field that has been in existence for a long time.

C. theoretical discipline that will help to solve the problems created by human impact.

D. relatively new field that will identify remedies to environmental issues.

E. theoretical field with an emphasis on scientific understanding.

A

4. Ideally, science

A. is correct most of the time.

B. tells us what we expected to find.

C. uses new technology.

D. is methodical and logical.

E. proves that our hypotheses are correct.

D

5. The best definition of a hypothesis is a(n)

A. proof of a proposed theory.

B. proposed theory that has been tested numerous times.

C. theory based on experiments.

D. argument based on acute intuition.

E. proposed explanation based on observation.

E

6. Of the following statements and questions, which is the best example of deductive reasoning?

A. If all insects have six legs, then butterflies have six legs.

B. In repeated tosses of a coin, there is a 50/50 chance of each toss resulting in a "head."

C. How many times will the toss of coins turn "heads-up" if 100 people each toss a coin?

D. Since every insect I have examined so far has six legs, I conclude that all insects must have six legs.

E. All of these are examples of deductive reasoning.

A

7. The statement, "Since every insect I have examined so far has six legs, I conclude that all insects must have six legs" is an example of

A. inductive reasoning.

B. deductive reasoning.

C. hypothesis testing.

D. reductive reasoning.

E. parsimony.

A

8. Although your sister is not a scientist, she says that she uses scientific techniques in her everyday life. You do not believe her but she insists it is true. Which of the following examples could she use to best persuade you that science is used daily?

A. When she cooks, she measures ingredients and puts them together to form something else (e.g., a cake).

B. When she drives in her car, she hypothesizes about things (e.g., when the red light will turn green).

C. She put some tomatoes in the sun and some in the shade to see if the sun causes them to ripen faster.

D. She buys a brand of toothpaste based on statistical data (four out of five dentists recommend it).

E. She cannot provide any example that would persuade you of using scientific techniques in her everyday life.

C

9. A group of concerned citizens are collecting water samples from a local river to detect the level of nitrogen in the water. They plan to take samples every day for a month and then will divide the sum by the number of days they sampled. What is the group trying to do?

A. Determine the mean level of nitrogen in the water.

B. Determine the average level of nitrogen in the water.

C. Determine the confidence level of the sample.

D. Both determine the mean level of nitrogen in the water and determine the average level of nitrogen in the water.

E. Both determine the average level of nitrogen in the water and determine the confidence level of the sample.

D

10. Which of the following is not an example of how statistics are used?

A. Assessing the general state of a group.

B. Determining the context of how data was gathered.

C. Estimating the confidence you can have in the data.

D. Determining if your group is unusual.

E. Evaluating the relationship between variables.

B

11. Utilitarian conservationists, including Gifford Pinchot and Theodore Roosevelt,

supported forest conservation in order to provide

A. wildlife habitats in forested areas.

B. untouched, unvisited wilderness areas.

C. homes, jobs, and recreation for people.

D. the scenic beauty found in natural areas.

E. resources, such as natural habitats, for future generations.

C

12. Biocentric preservationists, first led by John Muir, advocate saving natural areas for their

A. beauty and wildlife habitat.

B. hunting and fishing value.

C. wood and mineral resources for the future.

D. tourism and recreation potential.

E. economic value in cleaning the air and preventing soil erosion.

A

13. Environmentalism stemming from the publication of Rachel Carson's Silent Spring differed from earlier North American conservation perspectives by

A. focusing on human population growth.

B. placing more emphasis on pollution problems.

C. emphasizing international problems.

D. encouraging energy efficiency.

E. emphasizing the value of natural resources.

B

14. At the end of the twentieth century, ____________________ has/have been added to environmental thinking.

A. global concerns

B. urban problems

C. water supply and pollution problems

D. human population growth

E. air pollution problems

A

15. The point of critical thinking is to learn to

A. weigh all the evidence and draw your own conclusions.

B. distrust all opinions other than your own.

C. trust only your own experimental results.

D. learn to accept the views of real authorities.

E. identify true experts in a field.

A

16. In reading a claim by an atmospheric scientist that ozone depletion is not an actual environmental problem, a critical thinker would

A. ignore the claim because it does not align with his/her opinions.

B. feel relieved because ozone depletion was such an overwhelming problem.

C. look for evidence that is in line with past experience.

D. look for evidence and background of the source's reliability.

E. acknowledge the claim because an atmospheric scientist is an expert.

D

17. One of the first steps in critical thinking is to

A. decide whether conclusions follow premises.

B. decide if premises are true.

C. identify premises and conclusions.

D. identify whether premises are facts or values.

E. approach a problem in new and innovative ways.

C

18. Evidence of progress in dealing with increasing population problems is best illustrated by

A. current evidence of a stable population in the developing and developed world.

B. a decrease in the average number of children born to each woman.

C. current evidence of a globally stable population growth.

D. the decreasing population growth rate in the United States.

E. current evidence of a stable population in the developing world.

B

19. Poverty is passed on from one generation to the next primarily through

A. the lack of available opportunities.

B. genetic conditions.

C. improper care of natural resources.

D. the lack of motivation to change.

E. illnesses spread by viruses.

A

20. Proponents of sustainable development argue that

A. all development has environmental costs.

B. development is less important than the environment.

C. development can proceed with minimal costs to the environment.

D. the environment is less important than development.

E. development does not cause environmental damage.

C

21. What is the probability of getting tails 4 times in a row when you flip a coin?

A. 1 in 4

B. 1 in 10

C. 1 in 16

D. 1 in 20

E. 1 in 24

C

22. When testing a new drug to treat arthritis what method should be used to avoid bias in the data?

A. Deductive reasoning.

B. Inductive reasoning.

C. Critical thinking.

D. Statistics.

E. Double-blind experiments.

E

23. Compared to poorer countries, which of the following is not true of richer nations?

A. They have a higher per capita GDP.

B. They have higher fertility.

C. They have lower infant mortality.

D. They have higher adult literacy.

E. They have higher life expectancy.

B

24. Which of the following was key to the recovery of the Apo Island's reef fish population?

A. The establishment of a small marine sanctuary.

B. A complete ban on all fishing.

C. Importation of fish from other islands.

D. Heavy government investment in alternative food sources.

E. None of these are correct.

A

25. Sustainable development differs from traditional economic development in that it

emphasizes economic development in the short term.

(T or F)

False

Places in the world where indigenous people live tend to have high biodiversity.

(T or F)

True

Parsimony is one of the basic principles of science.

(T or F)

True

28. If you heard that cultural diversity was disappearing in one of the most culturally diverse regions of the world, you would

A. deduce that biodiversity was disappearing as well, because the two tend to go hand in hand.

B. induce that biodiversity was disappearing as well, because the two tend to go hand in hand.

C. assume that this phenomenon is not related to any other environmental degradation.

D. assume that scientists had already studied their language and biodiversity, so there is no immediate threat to their continued existence.

A

29. On Apo Island, a history of destructive fishing habits had the affect of

A. Reducing the food chain.

B. Eliminating biodiversity.

C. Impoverishing the local economy.

D. Over-exploiting available resources.

E. Impoverishing the local economy by over-exploiting available resources.

E

30. Random samples are used

A. to eliminate bias from a study.

B. Only when large samples are not available.

C. To eliminate the need for a rigorous method of choice.

D. Only in double-blind medical experiments.

A

31. What would be considered to be an area in environmental science where we are seeing progress toward sustainability?

A. Biodiversity loss

B. World hunger

C. Climate change

D. Renewable energy

D

32. Why is world hunger an environmental issue?

A. Food production is global but the resources are unequally distributed.

B. Agriculture is only possible in developed nations.

C. There is not enough fresh water for irrigation.

D. There is not enough fertilizer to provide high yields for crops.

A

33. Plants capturing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere would be an example of

A. sustainable development.

B. environmentalism.

C. ecosystem services.

D. throughput.

C

34. The concept that a resource that is degraded by the increasing populations that utilize the resource without any regulation of that resource is referred to as

A. the tragedy of the commons.

B. the population bomb.

C. the lack of sustainable thinking.

D. a paradigm shift.

A

1. The damage to an ecosystem caused by a hurricane or flood can be referred to as

A. An open system.

B. An emergent property.

C. Equilibrium in nature.

D. A disturbance.

E. Negative feedback loop.

D

2. The relationship among atoms, elements, and compounds is most like the relationship among which of the following groupings

A. bricks, brick houses, and large brick buildings.

B. grains of sand, rocks, and continents.

C. bricks, sidewalks, and paved roads.

D. ponds, lakes, and oceans.

E. grains of sugar, sugar, and sweetened iced tea.

E

3. Which of the following is not a molecule?

A. O3

B. O2

C. C

D. DNA

E. H2O

C

4. Which of the following statements would change this into a true statement: "Most, but not all,

living organisms are made up of organic compounds"?

A. All living organisms are made up of organic compounds.

B. All living organisms are made up of inorganic compounds.

C. Most, but not all, living organisms are made up of inorganic compounds.

D. Most, but not all, living organisms are made up of organic elements.

E. Most, but not all, living organisms are made up of inorganic elements.

A

5. Energy is the ability to

A. move objects.

B. become heated.

C. transfer heat from one object to another.

D. All of these are true.

E. Both move objects and transfer heat from one object to another are true.

E

6. Potential energy is _______ energy.

A. electrical

B. motion

C. stored

D. heat

E. latent

C

7. The motion of a rock rolling downhill is known as __________ energy.

A. kinetic

B. latent

C. potential

D. electrical

E. mechanical

A

8. Metabolism can be seen as the process of converting

A. energy into matter.

B. potential energy into kinetic energy.

C. kinetic energy into potential energy.

D. atoms into compounds.

E. matter into potential energy.

B

9. The law of conservation of matter tells us that matter

A. can never be reused.

B. needs to be conserved or it will not be available for future generations.

C. can be destroyed.

D. can be conserved by some adaptive strategies.

E. is used repeatedly.

E

10. What implication(s) does the law of conservation of matter have for humans?

A. We cannot create energy because it is neither created nor destroyed.

B. As matter is recycled it loses some of its integrity so we need to be careful when we dispose of goods.

C. Natural resources are unlimited because they are used and reused by living organisms.

D. Disposable goods are not going "away" when we throw them out.

E. All of these are implications of the law of conservation of matter.

D

11. The first law of thermodynamics and the law of conservation of matter are similar in that

A. under normal circumstances neither energy nor matter is created nor destroyed.

B. both energy and matter are recycled through biological systems.

C. both energy and matter flow in a one-way path through biological systems.

D. under normal circumstances energy and matter are destroyed as they pass through biological systems.

E. The first law of thermodynamics and the law of conservation of matter are not similar.

A

12. What implication(s) does the second law of thermodynamics have for biological systems?

A. Systems cannot create energy because energy is neither created nor destroyed.

B. With each transformation, less available energy is available to do work so older systems have less energy.

C. A constant supply of energy is necessary for maintenance of biological systems.

D. Energy is unlimited because it is used and reused by living organisms.

E. None of these is an implication of the second law of thermodynamics.

C

13. Photosynthesis is the process of converting __________ into __________ energy.

A. chemical bond energy; kinetic

B. solar energy; chemical bond

C. solar energy; kinetic

D. solar electrical energy; heat

E. chemical bond energy; potential

B

14. Photosynthesis produces sugars from

A. water, carbon dioxide, and energy.

B. water, other sugars, and oxygen.

C. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water.

D. carbon dioxide, enzymes, and energy.

E. oxygen, water, and energy.

A

15. The process of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are similar in that they both

A. capture energy in the form of sugar.

B. occur in all living organisms.

C. temporarily store energy in chemical bonds.

D. capture energy from the sun.

E. none of these are correct.

C

16. The process of cellular respiration

A. helps primary producers store energy accumulated by chloroplasts.

B. releases energy from chemical bonds of molecules such as glucose.

C. eliminates the need for enzymes in metabolism.

D. does not occur in primary producers.

E. does not occur in detritivores.

B

17. All members of a species that live in the same area at the same time make up a(an)

A. species.

B. ecosystem.

C. community.

D. population.

E. biome.

D

18. A biological community consists of all

A. populations living and interacting in an area.

B. members of a species living in the same area.

C. living things on Earth.

D. populations of a given species.

E. members of a species living in the same biome.

A

19. An ecosystem consists of

A. a physical environment within which a biological community lives.

B. the species with which a biological community interacts.

C. a biological community and its physical environment.

D. the primary producers within a biological community.

E. all the species in a biological community.

C

20. The length and complexity of a food web in the Arctic would be ____________ when compared to one in the tropical rainforest.

A. short and less complex

B. short and more complex

C. long and less complex

D. long and more complex

E. about the same

A

21. Producers rely on the process of ____________ to release chemical energy and consumers rely on the process of ____________ to release chemical energy.

A. cellular respiration; photosynthesis

B. cellular respiration; cellular respiration

C. photosynthesis; cellular respiration

D. photosynthesis; photosynthesis

E. the sun; the sun

B

22. Primary consumers are also known as

A. carnivores.

B. scavengers.

C. decomposers.

D. herbivores.

E. top carnivores

D

23. Energy enters a system as sunlight and a producer is able to produce 10 kilograms of tissue. If eaten, the producer would produce about ______ kilograms of consumer tissue that would provide about __________ kilograms of tissue for a secondary consumer.

A. 100; 10

B. 10; 1

C. 100; 1

D. 1; 0.1

E. 10; 0.1

D

24. Living plants and the ocean are known as "carbon sinks" because

A. they are made of carbon.

B. they create carbon.

C. they destroy carbon.

D. they store carbon.

E. due to gravity, carbon is found closer to the ground.

D

25. _______________________ are characteristics of an entire system that are greater than the sum of its parts.

A. Open systems

B. Closed systems

C. Disturbances

D. Emergent properties

E. Feedback loops

D

26. Which is the best example of a closed system?

A. a space station

B. a forest

C. a hotel

D. a lake

E. a river

A

27. Which is not a characteristic of acids?

A. They readily give up hydrogen ions.

B. They have a pH of less than 7.

C. They react easily with living tissue.

D. They react easily with nonliving minerals.

E. All of these are characteristic of acids.

E

28. How do the organisms living around Yellowstone's hot springs get energy?

A. By eating alga.

B. From the heat in the hot spring.

C. From photosynthesis.

D. From chemosynthesis.

E. No organisms can live at the depths of black smokers.

D

29. Nitrogen is an essential component of amino acids and proteins.

(T or F)

True

30. Photosynthesis is a step in the global nitrogen cycle.

(T or F)

False

31. Water expands when it crystallizes and freezes.

(T or F)

True

32. Based on what you know of photosynthesis, what effect would clearcutting of large forests have on the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A. It would increase the level of carbon dioxide since less photosynthesis would be taking place.

B. The amount of carbon dioxide would be decreased since the trees would no longer be living.

C. There would be no change in carbon dioxide levels since humans put carbon dioxide into the atmosphere by burning fossil fuels.

D. The amount of carbon dioxide would be the same since the reaction rates of photosynthesis and respiration are equal.

A

33. If you were to remove the top predator in a food web or food chain

A. there would be an increase in the number of producers.

B. the producer population will be depleted because there are more primary consumers or herbivores.

C. another predator would move in and take its place as top predator.

D. there would be no change in the exchange of energy since predators get very little (only 10%) of the energy from their food source.

B

34. Which biogeochemical cycle lacks an atmospheric component?

A. The hydrologic cycle.

B. The carbon cycle.

C. The nitrogen cycle.

D. The phosphorous cycle.

D

35. Water supplies contaminated with algae that produce toxins making the water unfit to drink is a result of the human impact to the

A. hydrologic cycle.

B. carbon cycle.

C. nitrogen cycle.

D. sulfur cycle.

C

36. The amount of biomass that is produced in an area during a given time would be referred to as

A. production.

B. chemosynthesis.

C. nutrient load.

D. productivity.

D

37. Organisms that live in deep sea ocean vents use chemicals rather than sunlight to drive the energy producing reactions. These organisms undergo what process?

A. Chemosynthesis

B. Biosynthesis

C. Photosynthesis

D. Accumulation

A

38. Humans alter the sulfur cycle by

A. burning fossil fuels.

B. mining rock.

C. applying too much fertilizer to crop fields.

D. clear cutting tropical forests.

A

1. Which of the following is not a common strategy for successful intraspecific competition?

A. Eating prey before they are "ready" (ripe) for other species.

B. Spreading seeds or offspring far and fast.

C. Producing substances that are toxic to competitors.

D. The life cycle of dragonflies (the larva live in the water).

E. All of these are strategies for successful interspecific competition.

E

2. There is/are usually _______ tolerance limit(s) responsible for limiting the number and location of a species. However, some organisms have ____________ that limit(s) their distribution.

A. one; a specific critical factor

B. one; other environmental conditions

C. one specific; many factors

D. many; other environmental conditions

E. many; a specific critical factor

E

Use the following example for the question. A species of fish can withstand a narrow range of temperature. Above 100°F there are no individuals present. In the range from 97°F-100°F and 90°F-94°F there are a few individuals present. Below 90°F there are no individuals present. Between 95°F-96°F there are many individuals.

3. What would you label the range of temperature from 90°F to 94°F for this particular species?

A. zone of intolerance

B. zone of physiological stress

C. tolerance limit range

D. optimal range

E. range of tolerance

B

Use the following example for the question. A species of fish can withstand a narrow range of temperature. Above 100°F there are no individuals present. In the range from 97°F-100°F and 90°F-94°F there are a few individuals present. Below 90°F there are no individuals present. Between 95°F-96°F there are many individuals.

4. What would you label the range of temperature from 95°F to 96°F for this particular species?

A. zone of intolerance

B. tolerance limit range

C. zone of physiological stress

D. optimal range

E. range of tolerance

D

5. What is the difference in the adaptation of a sled dog's (such as a Husky) thick coat of hair to help it withstand the cold temperatures of Arctic winters and a dog that adapts to cold temperatures in the fall by growing a thickened coat? The adaptation of the sled dog best describes adaptation at the ____________ level while the dog exposed to seasonal colder temperatures has _____________.

A. regional; natural selection at the individual level

B. individual; physiological modifications at the population level

C. population; physiological modifications at the individual level

D. species; natural selection at the population level

E. ecosystem; physiological modifications at the individual level

C

6. Evolution occurs as a result of

A. the discovery of a desirable characteristic in a population.

B. an individual's physiological modification.

C. environmental change that forces modification in a resident species.

D. better survival or reproduction rates by individuals with a particular characteristic.

E. a population's physiological modification.

D

7. Natural selection will ultimately make a species

A. more intelligent.

B. physically bigger.

C. better adapted to its environment.

D. more aggressive.

E. less vulnerable to its predators.

C

8. Regular lawn mowing selects for dandelions with short heads rather than dandelions with tall heads because

A. tall flowers spread their seeds farther.

B. tall flowers cannot reproduce.

C. short flowers can reproduce.

D. short flowers spread their seeds farther.

E. short flowers have less competition when the lawn is mowed often.

B

9. A titmouse and a chickadee are living in the same territory and are using some of the same resources. The best way to classify this interaction is as

A. mutualism.

B. intraspecific competition.

C. interspecific competition.

D. symbiosis.

E. commensalism.

C

10. An especially effective strategy for reducing intraspecific competition is

A. different ecological niches for juveniles and adults.

B. rapid reproduction.

C. eating prey before they are "ready" (ripe) for other species.

D. resource partitioning.

E. None of these since the examples given are for reducing interspecific competition.

A

11. Symbiosis means

A. a relationship in which both species benefit.

B. a parasitic relationship.

C. commensalism.

D. living together.

E. a relationship in which one species benefits and the other does not benefit.

D

12. In the partnership of a lichen, the fungus provides _________ and the relationship is best described as _______.

A. most of the photosynthesis; symbiosis

B. poisons that deter predation; commensalism

C. structure and moisture-holding ability; mutualism

D. very little to the algal partner; parasitism

E. some of the photosynthesis; commensalism

C

13. An organism's biotic potential is the maximum number of offspring

A. that it can produce.

B. that survive to adulthood.

C. its habitat can support.

D. it produces at one time.

E. it actually produces over its lifetime.

A

14. A dieback, or population crash, often occurs after a species ________ its environmental carrying capacity.

A. meets

B. overshoots

C. undershoots

D. oscillates around

E. decreases

B

15. In the real world, many factors determine the numbers of organisms in any one population. Yet, a SUPERFLY with unlimited food and no mortality would show what type of growth?

A. carrying capacity geometric increase

B. irruptive growth

C. J-shaped curve

D. S-shaped curve

E. Malthusian growth

C

16. A biological community's productivity is a measure of

A. its number of species.

B. the number of individuals in the community.

C. available solar energy that can be converted to biomass.

D. the amount of biomass produced in the community.

E. number of species and biomass.

D

17. In a biological community where diversity is great, such as a tropical rainforest, the abundance of any one species is likely to be

A. great.

B. small.

C. widely variable from year to year.

D. the same from year to year.

E. unrelated to diversity.

B

18. Complexity in an ecological community has to do with the number of

A. species in the population.

B. species at each trophic level.

C. genetic variations within a species.

D. primary producers available.

E. primary producers relative to the number of consumers.

B

19. A community with hundreds of different types of primary producers, a few herbivores, and only one carnivore, has

A. little complexity.

B. little diversity.

C. a great deal of complexity.

D. low productivity.

E. a great deal of productivity.

A

20. Primary succession occurs when a community develops ____________ while secondary succession occurs when one ________.

A. into a climax community; species replaces another

B. and replaces another; ecosystem becomes stable

C. on unoccupied ground; biological community replaces another

D. and then fails; niche changes

E. intraspecific competition; experiences interspecific competition

C

21. Which of the following are pioneer species?

A. wood warblers

B. dandelions

C. starlings

D. lichens

E. humans

D

22. As ecological development proceeds, a biological community

A. gradually stagnates.

B. becomes more diverse.

C. goes through repeated secondary succession stages.

D. goes through repeated primary succession stages.

E. becomes less complex.

B

23. A climax community is one that

A. is relatively stable and long lasting.

B. lasts forever.

C. contains oaks or white spruce.

D. is impervious to disruption.

E. is adapted to periodic disruption.

A

24. ___________ is the place or set of environmental conditions in which a particular organism lives.

A. Adaptation

B. Habitat

C. Tolerance range

D. Resource partition

E. Niche

B

25. What term describes species which arise in non-overlapping geographic regions?

A. intraspecific competition

B. interspecific competition

C. sympatric speciation

D. allopatric speciation

E. invasive species

D

26. Two unpalatable or dangerous species which have warning patterns or colors and appear similar are an example of _________________.

A. symbiosis

B. competitive exclusion

C. mutualism

D. Batesian mimicry

E. Mullerian mimicry

E

27. Which of the following is not generally true of k-selected species compared to r-selected species?

A. They have shorter generation times.

B. They reach sexual maturity later.

C. They have fewer young.

D. They have longer life spans.

E. They have slower population growth rates.

A

28. The most common reason that introduced species cause trouble is because they are larger than native species.

(T or F)

False