Non-Neoplastic Flashcards

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Last updated 4:00 AM on 4/12/26
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163 Terms

1
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*Question: What type of granules are increased in toxic granulation?
A) Specific (secondary) granules
B) Azurophilic (primary) granules
C) Tertiary granules
D) Gelatinase granules
*Answer: B) Azurophilic (primary) granules
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*Question: Toxic granulation is peroxidase:
A) Negative
B) Variable
C) Positive
D) Not detectable
*Answer: C) Positive
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*Question: Which cells are affected in toxic granulation?
A) Lymphocytes and monocytes
B) Eosinophils and basophils
C) Band and segmented neutrophils only
D) All granulocytes
*Answer: C) Band and segmented neutrophils only
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*Question: Toxic granulation correlates with which laboratory marker?
A) ESR levels
B) CRP levels
C) Procalcitonin levels
D) Ferritin levels
*Answer: B) CRP levels
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*Question: Which drug therapy is associated with toxic granulation?
A) Erythropoietin (EPO)
B) G-CSF therapy
C) Thrombopoietin (TPO)
D) Interferon-alpha
*Answer: B) G-CSF therapy
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*Question: Alder-Reilly Anomaly is inherited in what pattern?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) X-linked recessive
C) Autosomal recessive
D) X-linked dominant
*Answer: C) Autosomal recessive
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*Question: What are Reilly bodies composed of?
A) Precipitated myosin heavy chains
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Partially digested mucopolysaccharides
D) Fused lysosomal granules
*Answer: C) Partially digested mucopolysaccharides
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*Question: In Alder-Reilly Anomaly, leukocyte function is:
A) Severely impaired
B) Moderately impaired
C) Mildly impaired
D) Not affected
*Answer: D) Not affected
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*Question: Which WBCs are primarily affected in Alder-Reilly Anomaly?
A) Lymphocytes only
B) Granulocytes mainly; sometimes monocytes and lymphocytes
C) Monocytes only
D) Neutrophils and eosinophils only
*Answer: B) Granulocytes mainly; sometimes monocytes and lymphocytes
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*Question: Döhle bodies are composed of:
A) Precipitated myosin heavy chains
B) Partially digested mucopolysaccharides
C) Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RNA)
D) Fused azurophilic granules
*Answer: C) Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RNA)
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*Question: Where are Döhle bodies located within the cell?
A) Near the nucleus
B) Near the periphery of the cytoplasm
C) Within the nucleus
D) Attached to the cell membrane
*Answer: B) Near the periphery of the cytoplasm
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*Question: What is the appearance of Döhle bodies?
A) Dark purple, round inclusions
B) Red, granular inclusions
C) Pale blue, elongated inclusions arranged in parallel rows
D) Yellow, coarse cytoplasmic granules
*Answer: C) Pale blue, elongated inclusions arranged in parallel rows
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*Question: Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with Döhle bodies?
A) Bacterial infections
B) Pregnancy
C) Pelger-Huët Anomaly
D) Burns
*Answer: C) Pelger-Huët Anomaly
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*Question: How many nuclear lobes does a normal neutrophil have?
A) 1–2 lobes
B) 2–4 lobes
C) 3–5 lobes
D) 5–7 lobes
*Answer: C) 3–5 lobes
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*Question: Neutrophil hypersegmentation is defined as having more than how many lobes?
A) 3 lobes
B) 4 lobes
C) 5 lobes
D) 6 lobes
*Answer: C) 5 lobes
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*Question: Neutrophil hypersegmentation is most frequently associated with deficiencies of:
A) Vitamin C and iron
B) Vitamin B12 or folic acid
C) Vitamin D and calcium
D) Vitamin K and zinc
*Answer: B) Vitamin B12 or folic acid
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*Question: Hypersegmented neutrophils are classically seen in which anemia?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Megaloblastic anemia
*Answer: D) Megaloblastic anemia
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*Question: Neutrophil hypersegmentation can also be seen in which syndrome as a form of dysplasia?
A) Job's Syndrome
B) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)
C) Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome
D) May-Hegglin Anomaly
*Answer: B) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)
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*Question: Pelger-Huët Anomaly is characterized by:
A) Hypersegmentation of neutrophil nuclei
B) Hyposegmentation of neutrophil nuclei
C) Absence of neutrophil granules
D) Giant lysosomal granules
*Answer: B) Hyposegmentation of neutrophil nuclei
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*Question: What is the inheritance pattern of Pelger-Huët Anomaly?
A) Autosomal recessive
B) X-linked recessive
C) Autosomal dominant
D) X-linked dominant
*Answer: C) Autosomal dominant
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*Question: The classic "pince-nez" appearance in Pelger-Huët Anomaly refers to:
A) Round nucleus with coarse chromatin
B) Bilobed nucleus connected by a thin filament
C) Hypersegmented nucleus with fine chromatin
D) Dumbbell-shaped nucleus with pale chromatin
*Answer: B) Bilobed nucleus connected by a thin filament
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*Question: Which gene is mutated in True Pelger-Huët Anomaly?
A) MYH9 gene
B) STAT3 gene
C) Lamin B-receptor (LBR) gene
D) CHS1/LYST gene
*Answer: C) Lamin B-receptor (LBR) gene
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*Question: The LBR gene in Pelger-Huët Anomaly is found on which chromosome?
A) Chromosome 1q42
B) Chromosome 22q12-13
C) Chromosome 17
D) Chromosome 5q23.2
*Answer: D) Chromosome 5q23.2
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*Question: In Pelger-Huët Anomaly, neutrophil function is:
A) Severely impaired
B) Mildly impaired
C) Normal
D) Dependent on chromatin pattern
*Answer: C) Normal
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*Question: What percentage of cells are affected in True PHA?
A) Less than 38%
B) 63–93%
C) 50–60%
D) Less than 20%
*Answer: B) 63–93%
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*Question: Pseudo Pelger-Huët Anomaly is most commonly caused by:
A) Autosomal dominant mutation
B) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) G-CSF administration
*Answer: B) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)
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*Question: In Pseudo PHA, which WBCs are primarily affected?
A) All WBC lineages
B) Lymphocytes and monocytes
C) Neutrophils only (except some MDS cases)
D) Eosinophils and basophils
*Answer: C) Neutrophils only (except some MDS cases)
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*Question: Which feature helps distinguish True PHA from Pseudo PHA?
A) Presence of Döhle bodies
B) Family member PBS showing same findings
C) Elevated CRP levels
D) Presence of toxic granulation
*Answer: B) Family member PBS showing same findings
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*Question: Compared to myelocytes/metamyelocytes, PHA neutrophils have:
A) Higher N:C ratio and bigger size
B) Lower N:C ratio and smaller size
C) Same N:C ratio but different chromatin
D) Higher N:C ratio and smaller size
*Answer: B) Lower N:C ratio and smaller size
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*Question: A pyknotic nucleus is characterized by:
A) Fine chromatin and large nucleoli
B) Nuclear chromatin condensation and dark staining spheres
C) Pale blue inclusions near the periphery
D) Bilobed nucleus with thin filament
*Answer: B) Nuclear chromatin condensation and dark staining spheres
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*Question: Pyknotic nuclei are caused by:
A) Increased intracellular water
B) Dehydration
C) Excess lysosomal enzymes
D) Mitochondrial dysfunction
*Answer: B) Dehydration
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*Question: What is the key difference between apoptotic neutrophils and nucleated RBCs?
A) Apoptotic neutrophils are larger
B) Nucleated RBCs have more lobes
C) Apoptotic neutrophils have granules; nucleated RBCs are agranular
D) Nucleated RBCs stain darker
*Answer: C) Apoptotic neutrophils have granules; nucleated RBCs are agranular
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*Question: The Barr Body is also known as:
A) Reilly body
B) X or Sex Chromatin
C) Döhle body
D) Auer rod
*Answer: B) X or Sex Chromatin
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*Question: The Barr body represents:
A) An active X chromosome
B) A deactivated/inactive X chromosome
C) A Y chromosome fragment
D) A mutated autosome
*Answer: B) A deactivated/inactive X chromosome
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*Question: What is the clinical significance of the Barr body?
A) Indicates severe infection
B) Indicates megaloblastic anemia
C) No pathologic significance — normal finding
D) Indicates X-linked disease
*Answer: C) No pathologic significance — normal finding
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*Question: Faggot cells are characterized by:
A) Single Auer rods in blast cells
B) Clusters of Auer rods forming needle-like inclusions
C) Fused lysosomes in promyelocytes
D) Pale blue inclusions in neutrophils
*Answer: B) Clusters of Auer rods forming needle-like inclusions
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*Question: Faggot cells are suggestive of which condition?
A) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
B) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
C) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
D) Myelodysplastic Syndrome
*Answer: C) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
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*Question: May-Hegglin Anomaly is inherited in what pattern?
A) Autosomal recessive
B) X-linked recessive
C) Autosomal dominant
D) X-linked dominant
*Answer: C) Autosomal dominant
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*Question: Which gene is mutated in May-Hegglin Anomaly?
A) LBR gene
B) MYH9 gene on chromosome 22q12-13
C) STAT3 gene
D) GBA gene on chromosome 1
*Answer: B) MYH9 gene on chromosome 22q12-13
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*Question: The MYH9 gene codes for which protein?
A) Lamin B-1 protein
B) Acid sphingomyelinase
C) Myosin Heavy Chain Type IIA protein
D) Beta-glucocerebrosidase
*Answer: C) Myosin Heavy Chain Type IIA protein
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*Question: What is the classic triad of May-Hegglin Anomaly?
A) Albinism, immunodeficiency, thrombocytopenia
B) Thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, large Döhle body-like inclusions
C) Neutropenia, giant lysosomes, hypopigmentation
D) Hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure
*Answer: B) Thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, large Döhle body-like inclusions
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*Question: What are May-Hegglin inclusions actually made of?
A) Stacked rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) Partially digested mucopolysaccharides
C) Precipitated (clumped) myosin heavy chains
D) Fused azurophilic granules
*Answer: C) Precipitated (clumped) myosin heavy chains
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*Question: True Döhle bodies are composed of:
A) Precipitated myosin heavy chains
B) Lamellar rows of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
C) Partially digested mucopolysaccharides
D) Clumped azurophilic granules
*Answer: B) Lamellar rows of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
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*Question: Why does May-Hegglin Anomaly cause thrombocytopenia?
A) Increased platelet destruction in the spleen
B) Megakaryocytes fail to fragment properly, producing giant platelets
C) Antibodies destroy platelets in circulation
D) Bone marrow suppression reduces megakaryocyte count
*Answer: B) Megakaryocytes fail to fragment properly, producing giant platelets
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*Question: Lysosomal Storage Disease results from mutations in genes that code for:
A) Structural proteins of the cell membrane
B) Lysosomal enzymes
C) Mitochondrial respiratory chain proteins
D) Nuclear transcription factors
*Answer: B) Lysosomal enzymes
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*Question: Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS) involve deficient enzyme activity for degradation of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Dermatan sulfate
B) Heparan sulfate
C) Glucocerebroside
D) Keratan sulfate
*Answer: C) Glucocerebroside
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*Question: Which MPS syndrome is considered the mildest form?
A) Hurler syndrome
B) Hunter syndrome
C) Scheie syndrome
D) Sanfilippo syndrome
*Answer: C) Scheie syndrome
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*Question: What enzyme is deficient in MPS I (Hurler/Scheie)?
A) Iduronate 2-sulfatase
B) Alpha-L-iduronidase
C) N-Sulfoglucosamine sulfohydrolase
D) Beta-galactosidase
*Answer: B) Alpha-L-iduronidase
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*Question: What enzyme is deficient in Hunter Syndrome (MPS II)?
A) Alpha-L-iduronidase
B) Heparan-alpha-glucosaminide N-acetyltransferase
C) Iduronate 2-sulfatase
D) Alpha-N-acetylglucosaminidase
*Answer: C) Iduronate 2-sulfatase
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*Question: Sanfilippo Syndrome Type A (MPS III A) is deficient in which enzyme?
A) Alpha-N-acetylglucosaminidase
B) N-Sulfoglucosamine sulfohydrolase
C) Heparan-alpha-glucosaminide N-acetyltransferase
D) Alpha-L-iduronidase
*Answer: B) N-Sulfoglucosamine sulfohydrolase
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*Question: Sanfilippo Syndrome Type B (MPS III B) is deficient in which enzyme?
A) N-Sulfoglucosamine sulfohydrolase
B) Heparan-alpha-glucosaminide N-acetyltransferase
C) Alpha-N-acetylglucosaminidase
D) Iduronate 2-sulfatase
*Answer: C) Alpha-N-acetylglucosaminidase
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*Question: Which clinical feature is unique to Sanfilippo Syndrome Type A?
A) Cardiomegaly
B) Retinitis pigmentosa
C) Hirsutism
D) Corneal clouding
*Answer: C) Hirsutism
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*Question: Gaucher Disease is caused by a deficiency of which enzyme?
A) Acid sphingomyelinase
B) Alpha-L-iduronidase
C) Beta-glucocerebrosidase
D) Hexosaminidase A
*Answer: C) Beta-glucocerebrosidase
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*Question: The GBA gene in Gaucher Disease is located on which chromosome?
A) Chromosome 11p15.4
B) Chromosome 22q12-13
C) Chromosome 1q21-q22
D) Chromosome 17
*Answer: C) Chromosome 1q21-q22
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*Question: What accumulates in macrophages in Gaucher Disease?
A) Sphingomyelin
B) Sphingolipid glucocerebroside
C) Mucopolysaccharides
D) Cholesterol
*Answer: B) Sphingolipid glucocerebroside
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*Question: Gaucher cells are described as having:
A) Foamy vacuolated cytoplasm with central nucleus
B) Abundant fibrillar blue-gray cytoplasm with onion skin-like appearance
C) Blue-green cytoplasm with lipid-rich granules
D) Dark purple granules with eccentric nucleus
*Answer: B) Abundant fibrillar blue-gray cytoplasm with onion skin-like appearance
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*Question: Which stain is NOT used to identify Gaucher cells?
A) Trichrome
B) Periodic Acid Schiff
C) Sudan Black B
D) Acid phosphatase
*Answer: C) Sudan Black B
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*Question: What is the most common type of Gaucher Disease?
A) Type II
B) Type III
C) Type I
D) Type IV
*Answer: C) Type I
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*Question: What distinguishes Gaucher Disease subtypes from each other?
A) Age of onset
B) Presence or absence of neurologic symptoms
C) Type of enzyme deficiency
D) Degree of hepatosplenomegaly
*Answer: B) Presence or absence of neurologic symptoms
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*Question: How are Pseudo-Gaucher cells distinguished from true Gaucher cells on electron microscopy?
A) Pseudo = tubular inclusions; True = needle-like inclusions
B) Pseudo = needle-like inclusions; True = tubular inclusions
C) Pseudo = onion-skin pattern; True = foam appearance
D) They cannot be distinguished even by electron microscopy
*Answer: B) Pseudo = needle-like inclusions; True = tubular inclusions
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*Question: Pseudo-Gaucher cells can be found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Thalassemia
B) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
D) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
*Answer: C) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
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*Question: Niemann-Pick Disease involves deficiency of which enzyme?
A) Beta-glucocerebrosidase
B) Hexosaminidase A
C) Acid sphingomyelinase
D) Alpha-galactosidase
*Answer: C) Acid sphingomyelinase
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*Question: The SMPD1 gene in Niemann-Pick Disease is located on which chromosome?
A) Chromosome 1q21
B) Chromosome 11p15.4
C) Chromosome 5q23.2
D) Chromosome 22q12
*Answer: B) Chromosome 11p15.4
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*Question: Foam cells (Pick's cells) in Niemann-Pick Disease are:
A) Neutrophils with fused granules
B) Macrophages with lipid-filled lysosomes appearing as small vacuoles
C) Eosinophils with large Döhle body-like inclusions
D) Lymphocytes with intranuclear inclusions
*Answer: B) Macrophages with lipid-filled lysosomes appearing as small vacuoles
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*Question: Which stains are positive for Niemann-Pick foam cells?
A) Trichrome and Acid Phosphatase
B) Periodic Acid Schiff and Aldehyde Fuchsin
C) Sudan Black B and Oil Red O
D) Giemsa and Wright stain
*Answer: C) Sudan Black B and Oil Red O
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*Question: In Niemann-Pick Type A, sphingomyelinase activity is typically:
A) 50–60% of normal
B) 10–20% of normal
C) 30–40% of normal
D) Less than 5% of normal
*Answer: D) Less than 5% of normal
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*Question: Which type of Niemann-Pick Disease is non-neuronopathic?
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type C
D) Type D
*Answer: B) Type B
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*Question: Sea Blue Histiocytes stain what color with polychrome stains?
A) Red-orange
B) Dark purple
C) Blue-green
D) Yellow-brown
*Answer: C) Blue-green
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*Question: Sea Blue Histiocytes are associated with which conditions?
A) Gaucher Disease and Tay-Sachs Disease
B) Adult form of Niemann-Pick Disease and chronic granulocytic leukemia
C) Hurler Syndrome and Hunter Syndrome
D) Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome and Job's Syndrome
*Answer: B) Adult form of Niemann-Pick Disease and chronic granulocytic leukemia
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*Question: Which disease involves a deficiency of Hexosaminidase A only?
A) Sandhoff's Disease
B) Fabry's Disease
C) Tay-Sachs Disease
D) Gaucher's Disease
*Answer: C) Tay-Sachs Disease
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*Question: Which disease involves deficiency of both Hexosaminidase A and B?
A) Tay-Sachs Disease
B) Sandhoff's Disease
C) Niemann-Pick Disease
D) Fabry's Disease
*Answer: B) Sandhoff's Disease
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*Question: Fabry's Disease involves deficiency of which enzyme?
A) Beta-glucocerebrosidase
B) Acid sphingomyelinase
C) Alpha-galactosidase
D) Hexosaminidase A
*Answer: C) Alpha-galactosidase
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*Question: Which of the following is the most common Lysosomal Storage Disease?
A) Niemann-Pick Disease
B) Tay-Sachs Disease
C) Fabry's Disease
D) Gaucher Disease
*Answer: D) Gaucher Disease
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*Question: Job's Syndrome is also known as:
A) Autosomal Recessive Hyperimmunoglobulin M Syndrome
B) Autosomal Dominant Hyperimmunoglobulin E Syndrome
C) X-linked Hyperimmunoglobulin A Syndrome
D) Familial Hyperimmunoglobulin G Syndrome
*Answer: B) Autosomal Dominant Hyperimmunoglobulin E Syndrome
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*Question: Which gene is mutated in Job's Syndrome?
A) LBR gene
B) MYH9 gene
C) STAT3 gene
D) LYST gene
*Answer: C) STAT3 gene
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*Question: In Job's Syndrome, which type of movement is impaired?
A) Random movement only
B) Directional motility only
C) Both random and directional movement
D) Neither; movement is normal
*Answer: B) Directional motility only
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*Question: What is the result of impaired directional motility in Job's Syndrome?
A) Bacteria are killed immediately upon contact
B) More time for bacteria to multiply before being attacked
C) Neutrophils cannot engulf bacteria
D) Respiratory burst is completely absent
*Answer: B) More time for bacteria to multiply before being attacked
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*Question: The abscesses in Job's Syndrome are described as "cold" because:
A) They form in cold body regions
B) The usual signs of inflammation (heat and redness) are absent
C) They contain cold-adapted bacteria
D) They respond only to cold therapy
*Answer: B) The usual signs of inflammation (heat and redness) are absent
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*Question: In Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome, which movements are impaired?
A) Random movement only
B) Directional movement only
C) Both random and directional movement
D) Phagocytosis only
*Answer: C) Both random and directional movement
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*Question: What is the consistent hematologic finding in Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome?
A) Leukocytosis
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Neutropenia
D) Anemia
*Answer: C) Neutropenia
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*Question: Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome cells contain which structural defect?
A) Absent azurophilic granules
B) Defective actin filaments
C) Fused dysfunctional lysosomes
D) Absent NADPH oxidase complex
*Answer: B) Defective actin filaments
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*Question: What are the classic clinical features of Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome?
A) Cold abscesses and eczema
B) Albinism and bleeding tendencies
C) Low grade fever and recurrent infections involving gums, mouth, and ears
D) Recurrent pneumonia and osteomyelitis
*Answer: C) Low grade fever and recurrent infections involving gums, mouth, and ears
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*Question: Chronic Granulomatous Disease is most commonly inherited as:
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
*Answer: C) X-linked recessive
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*Question: What percentage of CGD cases are X-linked?
A) 30–35%
B) 50–55%
C) 60–70%
D) 80–85%
*Answer: C) 60–70%
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*Question: The main problem in Chronic Granulomatous Disease is:
A) Inability to perform chemotaxis
B) Decreased ability to produce superoxide and reactive oxygen species
C) Absence of myeloperoxidase
D) Defective actin polymerization
*Answer: B) Decreased ability to produce superoxide and reactive oxygen species
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*Question: Which complex is defective in Chronic Granulomatous Disease?
A) Cytochrome bc1 complex
B) NADPH oxidase complex
C) Complement complex C3b
D) TLR signaling complex
*Answer: B) NADPH oxidase complex
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*Question: Most cases of CGD are due to mutations in which proteins?
A) p47phos and p67phos
B) gp91phox or p47
C) RAC2 and p40phox
D) gp22phox and RAC2
*Answer: B) gp91phox or p47
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*Question: In the NBT (Nitroblue Tetrazolium) test, a NORMAL result produces:
A) Yellow water-soluble product
B) Red insoluble formazan
C) Dark blue insoluble formazan
D) No color change
*Answer: C) Dark blue insoluble formazan
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*Question: In the NBT test, an ABNORMAL (CGD) result shows:
A) Dark blue insoluble formazan
B) Yellow color retained (NBT not reduced)
C) Red precipitate
D) Green fluorescence
*Answer: B) Yellow color retained (NBT not reduced)
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*Question: In the Flow Cytometry DHR assay for CGD, what label is used?
A) Nitroblue tetrazolium
B) Propidium iodide
C) Dihydrorhodamine (DHR)
D) Annexin V
*Answer: C) Dihydrorhodamine (DHR)
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*Question: In the DHR flow cytometry assay, abnormal CGD cells show:
A) High fluorescence
B) Moderate fluorescence
C) Little to no fluorescence
D) Green fluorescence only
*Answer: C) Little to no fluorescence
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*Question: What percentage of CGD patients survive well into adulthood with modern treatment?
A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 80%
D) 90%
*Answer: D) 90%
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*Question: Myeloperoxidase Deficiency is also called:
A) Alder-Reilly Anomaly
B) Alius-Grignaschi Anomaly
C) May-Hegglin Anomaly
D) Pelger-Huët Anomaly
*Answer: B) Alius-Grignaschi Anomaly
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*Question: In MPO deficiency, which cells LACK myeloperoxidase?
A) Neutrophils and eosinophils
B) Eosinophils and basophils
C) Neutrophils and monocytes (NOT eosinophils)
D) All granulocytes equally
*Answer: C) Neutrophils and monocytes (NOT eosinophils)
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*Question: The MPO gene is located on which chromosome?
A) Chromosome 1
B) Chromosome 11
C) Chromosome 17
D) Chromosome 22
*Answer: C) Chromosome 17
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*Question: In MPO deficiency, bacterial killing is:
A) Absent
B) Delayed but complete
C) Immediate and enhanced
D) Severely impaired and incomplete
*Answer: B) Delayed but complete
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*Question: What compensatory mechanism occurs in MPO deficiency?
A) Increased phagocytosis
B) Increased chemotaxis
C) Increased respiratory burst activity
D) Increased lysosomal enzyme production
*Answer: C) Increased respiratory burst activity
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*Question: Which analyzer can easily detect MPO deficiency in the hematology laboratory?
A) Beckman Coulter LH 780
B) Sysmex XN-Series
C) Siemens Advia analyzer
D) Abbott CELL-DYN Sapphire
*Answer: C) Siemens Advia analyzer
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*Question: Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome is inherited as:
A) Autosomal dominant
B) X-linked recessive
C) Autosomal recessive
D) X-linked dominant
*Answer: C) Autosomal recessive
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*Question: Which gene is mutated in Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome?
A) MYH9 gene
B) STAT3 gene
C) CHS1/LYST gene on chromosome 1q42.1-2
D) LBR gene on chromosome 5q23.2
*Answer: C) CHS1/LYST gene on chromosome 1q42.1-2