unit 4 microbio quiz and iclickers

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Last updated 2:20 PM on 4/28/26
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337 Terms

1
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The appearance of this rash is characteristic of infections with which of the following?

• dengue virus

• Epstein-Barr virus

• Francisella tularensis

• Yersinia pestis

• Borrelia burgdorferi

• Borrelia burgdorferi

2
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Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis?

relapsing fever

undulant fever

jaundice

pneumonia

gastroenteritis

undulant fever

3
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

 

rheumatic fever– Streptococcus pyogenes

 

puerperal sepsis – Staphylococcus aureus

 

Burkitt's lymphoma – Epstein-Barr virus

 

acute bacterial endocarditis – Staphylococcus aureus

 

subacute bacterial endocarditis – alpha-hemolytic streptococci

puerperal sepsis – Staphylococcus aureus

4
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

 

Rocky Mountain spotted fever – Dermacentor (tick)

 

dengue – Aedes (mosquito)

 

encephalitis – Ixodes (tick)

 

epidemic typhus – Pediculus (louse)

 

malaria – Anopheles (mosquito)

encephalitis – Ixodes (tick)

5
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Which one of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants?

 

rhinovirus

 

Mycoplasma

 

respiratory syncytial virus

 

influenza

 

adenovirus

respiratory syncytial virus

6
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Exposure to large accumulations of bird dropping may result in which of the following mycoses?

 

Pneumocystis pneumonia

 

valley fever

 

histoplasmosis

 

blastomycosis

 

coccidioidomycosis

histoplasmosis

7
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The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following respiratory diseases?

pneumonia

tuberculosis

the common cold

pertussis

anthrax

pertussis

8
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a young child received a red-eared slider turtle as a birthday gift. within a week the child was suffering from a sever gastroenteritis that required a visit to urgent care. what is the child likely suffering from?

a) cholera

b) salmonellosis

c) shigellosis

d) campylobacter infection

e) hepatitis A infection

9
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which of the following statements concerning toxoplasma infection is CORRECT?

a) in most individuals, the infection results in lasting damage to the heart

b) it is transmitted by biting insects

c) it is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat

d) freshwater snails are intermediate hosts

e) it is a rare infection

c) it is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat

10
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Infection by which one of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes?

Bordetella pertussis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Blastomyces dermatidis

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Streptococcus pyogenes

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

11
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Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and horse?

Salmonella enterica

Entamoeba histolytica

Staphylococcus aureus

Shigella spp.

Trichinella spiralis

Trichinella spiralis

12
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Poultry products are a likely source of infection by

Helicobacter pylori.

Salmonella enterica.

Shigella spp.

Clostridium perfringens.

Vibrio cholerae.

Salmonella enterica.

13
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All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT

current tuberculosis infection.

being near someone with tuberculosis.

vaccination.

previous tuberculosis infection.

immunity to tuberculosis.

being near someone with tuberculosis.

14
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Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology of the symptoms?

 

Mycobacterium

 

Blastomyces

 

Pneumocystis

 

Coccidioides

 

Histoplasma

Coccidioides

15
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The virulence factor of Vibrio cholera, which is primarily responsible for the signs and symptoms of cholera, is

 

its activation of certain genes within the human body.

 

the presence of polar flagella.

 

its ability to survive in freshwater.

 

its ability to form biofilms in saltwater.

 

its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.

its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.

16
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Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?

 

Vibrio gastroenteritis

 

traveler's diarrhea

 

mumps

 

staphylococcal enterotoxicosis

 

bacillary dysentery

mumps

17
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Which of the following is the major sign or symptom of mumps?

deafness

diarrhea

difficulty in breathing

parotitis

nausea and vomiting

parotitis

18
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The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is

esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.

esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine.

pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine.

pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.

pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine.

pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.

19
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What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease?

 

Giardia intestinalis

 

Salmonella enterica

 

Clostridium difficile

 

Escherichia coli O157:H7

 

Lactobacillus

Clostridium difficile

20
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In the United States, approximately how many people over the age of 30 are infected with HSV-2?

5-10%

90%

approximately 75%

approximately 25%

1-3%

approximately 25%

21
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Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?

trichomoniasis

genital herpes

chancroid

gonorrhea

candidiasis

candidiasis

22
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A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which one of the following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms?

 

Candida

 

Nesseria

 

HSV-2

 

HPV

 

Treponema

Treponema

23
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Infection of the lymphatic vessels is known as

petechiae.

lymphangitis.

bacteremia.

disseminated intravascular coagulation

.recurrent fever.

lymphangitis.

24
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One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by

 

Chlamydia trachomatis.

 

Candida albicans.

 

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

 

Leptospira interrogans.

 

Treponema pallidum.

Chlamydia trachomatis.

25
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Which one of the following genera of microorganisms causes gonorrhea?

 

Mycoplasma

 

Neisseria

 

Ureaplasma

 

Chlamydia

 

None of the answers is correct; all of these cause gonorrhea.

Neisseria

26
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Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is associated with

• Neisseria meningitidis.

• Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

• Staphylococcus aureus.

• Streptococcus pyogenes.

• both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

• both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

27
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Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?

• epidemic typhus

• plague

• malaria

• tickborne typhus

• relapsing fever

• malaria

28
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Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection?

• not contagious

• accompanied by a rash

• affected mostly children

• transmitted by ticks

• treatable with penicillin

• treatable with penicillin

29
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Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT

• scarlet fever.

• rheumatic fever.

• epiglottitis.

• pharyngitis.

• strep throat.

• epiglottitis.

30
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Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology of the symptoms?

• Mycobacterium

• Blastomyces

• Pneumocystis

• Coccidioides

• Histoplasma

Coccidioides

31
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Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract?

• Legionella

• Mycobacterium

• Mycoplasma

• Chlamydophila

• Streptococcus

• Mycoplasma

32
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The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms?

• Corynebacterium

• Mycobacterium

• Haemophilus

• Bordetella

• The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

• Corynebacterium

33
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The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is

• esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.

• esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine.

• pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine.

• pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.

• pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine.

• pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.

34
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Which is true of the Mumps virus?

• Male sterility occurs in 40% of infections.

• It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.

• A component vaccine is part of the MMR.

• It typically begins with symptoms of gastroenteritis.

• The portal of entry is the respiratory route.

• The portal of entry is the respiratory route.

35
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Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?

• Vibrio gastroenteritis

• traveler's diarrhea

• mumps

• staphylococcal enterotoxicosis

• bacillary dysentery

• mumps

36
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Which of the following is the major sign or symptom of mumps?

• deafness

• diarrhea

• difficulty in breathing

• parotitis

• nausea and vomiting

• parotitis

37
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Intermediate hosts become infested with tapeworms through ingestion of

• tapeworm eggs.

• mature tapeworms.

• gravid proglottids.

• tapeworm larvae.

• cysticerci.

• tapeworm eggs.

38
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Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by

• Pseudomonas.

• Enterococcus.

• Escherichia coli.

• Proteus.

• Klebsiella.

• Escherichia coli.

39
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Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

• gonorrhea - gram-negative cocci

• chancroid - gram-negative rod

• trichomoniasis - fungus

• syphilis - gram-negative spirochete

• Gardnerella - clue cells

• trichomoniasis - fungus

40
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In the United States, approximately how many people over the age of 30 are infected with HSV-2?

• 5-10%

• 90%

• approximately 75%

• approximately 25%

• 1-3%

• approximately 25%

41
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A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing.

The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in?

• secondary

• tertiary

• primary

• NGU

• secondary

42
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Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consists primarily of

• Streptococcus.

• Candida.

• Neisseria.

• Lactobacillus.

• Mycobacterium.

• Lactobacillus.

43
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Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following diseases EXCEPT:

-endemic murine typhus

- plague, epidemic typhus

- Rocky Mountain spotted fever

- relapsing fever

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

44
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Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis?

- relapsing fever

- undulant fever

- jaundice

- pneumonia

- gastroenteritis

undulant fever

45
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Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is FALSE?

- It can be congenital

- It is caused by a protozoan

- It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route

- The reservoir is cats

- It typically is a severe illness in adults

It typically is a severe illness in adults

46
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Which of the following is NOT a bacterial pathogen transmitted by the bite of an animal?

- Pasteurella multocida

- Bartonella henselae

- Plasmodium vivax

- Streptobacillus

- None of the answers is correct

Plasmodium vivax

47
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Which disease is currently vaccine-preventable in humans? - Lyme disease

- yellow fever

- malaria

- schistosomiasis

- plague

yellow fever

48
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Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen commonly present in the nasal cavity as a member of the microbiota?

- Legionella pneumophilia

- Veillonella species

- Bordetella pertussis

- Staphylococcus aureus

- Pneumocystis jiroveci

Staphylococcus aureus

49
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Which one of the following produces small “fried-egg” colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract?

- Legionella

- Mycobacterium

- Mycoplasma

- Chlamydophila

- Streptococcus

Mycoplasma

50
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Which of the following is NOT transmitted in raw milk?listeriosis

anthrax

brucellosis

toxoplasmosis

All of these can be transmitted in raw milk.

toxoplasmosis

51
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Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology of the symptoms?

- Mycobacterium

- Blastomyces

- Pneumocystis

- Coccidioides

- Histoplasma

Coccidioides

52
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Which of the following Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors kills leukocytes and erythrocytes?

- streptokinases

- hyaluronic acid capsule

- C5a peptidase

- pyrogenic toxins

- streptolysins

streptolysins

53
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The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is

- esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

- esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine

- pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine

- pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

- pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

54
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What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease?

- Giardia intestinalis

- Salmonella enterica

- Clostridium difficile

- Escherichia coli O157:H7

- Lactobacillus

Clostridium difficile

55
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Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes?

- Lesions become more severe with each recurrence

- Ninety percent caused by HHV-2

- There is an effective cure

- Lesions can be triggered by stress or physiologic changes

- Primary infections are usually severe

Lesions can be triggered by stress or physiologic changes

56
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Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?

- lactic acid

- sucrose

- dentin

- lysozyme

- crevicular fluid

lactic acid

57
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The most common cause of traveler’s diarrhea is

- Giardia lamblia

- Campylobacter jejuni

- Salmonella enterica

- Escherichia coli

- Shigella spp

Escherichia coli

58
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A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. He had a penile ulcer 2 months earlier. What stage is he in?

- secondary

- tertiary

- primary

- NGU

secondary

59
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The causative agent of chancroid is

- HPV

- Treponema pallidum

- Neisseria gonorrhoeae

- HSV-2

- Haemophilus ducreyi

Haemophilus ducreyi

60
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Which STI may be confused with syphilis due to genital ulcer formation?

- candidiasis

- chancroid (soft chancre)

- nongonococcal urethritis

- leptospirosis

- gonorrhea

chancroid (soft chancre)

61
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In the United States, approximately how many people over age 30 are infected with HSV-2?

- 5–10%

- 90%

- approximately 75%

- approximately 25%

- 1–3%

approximately 25%

62
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

puerperal sepsis - Staphylococcus aureus

63
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Which of the following is characteristic of Yersinia pestis infections?

buboes

64
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Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is associated with

both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

65
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A characteristic symptom of plague is

swollen lymph nodes

66
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Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by

the respiratory route

67
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Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system?

pharynx

68
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The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following respiratory diseases?

pertussis

69
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Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT

epiglottitis

70
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Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract?

Mycoplasma

71
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Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications

have shorter incubation times

72
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Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by

extended use of antibiotics

73
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What is a Dane particle?

the infectious virion that causes HBV

74
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Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with

gingivitis

75
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Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever?

Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes

76
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The causative agent of chancroid is

Haemophilus ducreyi

77
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Which one of the following genera of microorganisms causes gonorrhea?

Neisseria

78
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Which one of the following is caused by Chlamydia?

lymphogranuloma venereum

79
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Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consists primarily of

Lactobacillus

80
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Epstein-Barr virus infections are typically asymptomatic in ____ because of incomplete development of adaptive immunity.

- Adults

- the elderly

- young children

- AIDS patients

- adolescents

young children

81
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Which of the following is NOT controlled by a mosquito eradication program?

- chikungunya fever

- malaria

- yellow fever

- schistosomiasis

- dengue fever

schistosomiasis

82
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Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis?

- puerperal sepsis

- tularemia

- anthrax

- Hantavirus infection

- brucellosis

puerperal sepsis

83
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You advise your pregnant friend to not adopt a new kitten from her neighbor because she could contract

- infectious mononucleosis.

- plague.

- toxoplasmosis.

- Burkitt's Lymphoma.

- listeriosis.

toxoplasmosis

84
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A large number of people in an African village become ill a couple of weeks after sharing a feast of stew made from the meat of jungle animals. They initially have fever, headache and fatigue, and develop petechiae. Most then experience bloody diarrhea and vomiting, and a few days later begin bleeding from the mouth and eyes. What is the most likely preliminary diagnosis?

- ebola hemorrhagic fever

- yellow fever

- dengue hemorrhagic fever

- malaria

- African trypanosomiasis

ebola hemorrhagic fever

85
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Blastomycosis results from

inhalation of respiratory droplets.

inhalation of fungal spores.

contact with fomites.

contact with infected sputum.

inhalation of spherules.

inhalation of fungal spores.

86
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Group A streptococci produce _____ which breaks down blood clots, allowing the bacteria to spread.

- streptokinase

- pyrogenic toxins

- M proteins

- C5a peptidase

- a hyaluronic acid capsule

streptokinase

87
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A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?

- Corynebacterium

- Mycobacterium

- Bordetella

- Mycoplasma

- Burkholderia

Bordetella

88
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Which one of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants?

- rhinovirus

- Mycoplasma

- respiratory syncytial virus

- influenza

- adenovirus

respiratory syncytial virus

89
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Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the

- stomach.

- mouth.

- accessory structures.

- small intestine and large intestine.

- stomach and small intestine.

small intestine and large intestine

90
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Chronic infection with ___ may progress to hepatic cancer.

- HCV

- HEV

- HBV

- HAV

- both HBV and HCV

both HBV and HCV

91
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The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is

- Giardia lamblia.

- Campylobacter jejuni.

- Salmonella enterica.

- Escherichia coli.

- Shigella spp.

Escherichia coli

92
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Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?

- Vibrio gastroenteritis

- traveler's diarrhea

- mumps

- staphylococcal enterotoxicosis

- bacillary dysentery

mumps

93
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What is a Dane particle?

- the filamentous particles that cause HAV

- the chlorine-resistant virus that causes HAV

- the infectious virion that causes HBV

- the spherical particles found in serum of patients with HBV

- another name for an HBV surface antigen

the infectious virion that causes HBV

94
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Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consists primarily of

- Streptococcus.

- Candida.

- Neisseria.

- Lactobacillus.

- Mycobacterium.

Lactobacillus

95
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Cystitis is most often caused by

- Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

- Escherichia coli.

- Leptospira interrogans.

- Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

- Candida albicans.

Escherichia coli

96
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Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?

- trichomoniasis

- genital herpes

- chancroid

- gonorrhea

- candidiasis

candidiasis

97
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Which one of the following is a STI that may be confused with syphilis due to its ulcer formation on the genitalia?

- candidiasis

- chancroid (soft chancre)

- nongonococcal urethritis

- leptospirosis

- gonorrhea

chancroid (soft chancre)

98
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In the United States, approximately how many people over the age of 30 are infected with HSV-2?

- 5-10%

- 90%

- approximately 75%

- approximately 25%

- 1-3%

approximately 25%

99
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In the brain, cerebrospinal fluid flows through the:

a) Dura mater

b) Subarachnoid space

c) Arachnoid mater

d) Pia mater

b) Subarachnoid space

3 multiple choice options

100
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Which one of the following statements about Mycobacterium leprae is FALSE?

a) It has an optimum growth temperature of 37C

b) It has a generation time of 12 days.

c) It has never been grown on artificial media.

d) It grows in the peripheral nervous system.

a) It has an optimum growth temperature of 37C

3 multiple choice options