Paramedic Care: Principles & Practice: Quizzes and Test Questions

You arrive at the scene of a shooting in a housing project and find a patient lying on the sidewalk in a pool of blood. An obvious, large gaping open wound to the upper thigh is spurting blood. The patient is still clutching a pistol while thrashing around and screaming. Your first action should be to:

a. immediately apply direct pressure to the open thigh wound

b. restrain the patient and attempt to control the weapon

c. retreat and clear bystanders from around the patient

d. attempt to knock the gun from the patients hand

c. retreat and clear bystanders from around the patient

Medical direction in an EMS system is:

a. provided by a supervising nurse in the emergency department

b. provided by employing the agency's training or education staff

c. the ultimate responsibility of a physician medical director

d. provided by the use of well defined treatment protocols

c. the ultimate responsibility of a physician medical director

An example of an unsafe on scene activity is:

a. wearing reflective clothing at night

b. using latex gloves

c. wearing protective clothing

d. entering a crime scene quickly

d. entering a crime scene quickly

The single most important way to prevent the spread of infection is by:

a. wearing latex gloves

b. wearing a disposable face mask

c. vigorous hand washing

d. using aseptic wipes

c. vigorous hand washing

The term bilateral refers to:

a. both lungs

b. one side

c. frontal skull

d. both sides

d. both sides

Which of the following is not considered a sign?

a. abdominal pain

b. retractions

c. bleeding from the forehead

d. hot skin temperature

a. abdominal pain

The trachea divides into two:

a. carina

b. bronchi

c. alveoli

d. pharynx

b. bronchi

Which blood vessel carries oxygen poor blood to the heart?

a. vena cava

b. aorta

c. pulmonary arteries

d. pulmonary vein

vena cava

When a substance enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract, it has accessed the body through:

a. absorption

b. ingestion

c. inhalation

d. injection

b. ingestion

Alcohol is classified as a:

a. anxiolytic

b. depressant

c. stimulant

d. serotonin inhibitor

b. depressant

Which of the following is a highly toxic, odorless, tasteless gas that is a by product of incomplete combustion?

a. carbon dioxide

b. methane

c. cyanide

d. carbon monoxide

d. carbon monoxide

Which patient is breathing adequately?

a. 8 year old breathing 12 times a minute with shallow tidal volume

b. 3 month old breathing 40 times a minute with abdominal movement

c. 22 year old breathing 26 times a minute with accessory muscle use

d. 61 year old breathing 42 times a minute with a history of smoking

b. 3 month old breathing at 40 times a minute with abdominal movement

You note snoring sounds upon assessment of the airway in an unresponsive patient who is found lying in bed. You should:

a. place the patient on a non-rebreather mask at 15 lpm

b. tilt the head back and lift the chin forward

c. begin positive pressure ventilation with a pocket mask

d. assess to determine if a carotid pulse is present

b. tilt the head back and lift the chin forward

After assisting you patient with a metered dose inhaler (MDI), he experiences tachycardia and nervousness. Which of the following is true regarding these findings?

a. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of the drug

b. the patient has overdosed on the medication

c. tachycardia and nervousness occurred because the medication dose was incorrect

d. the patient is hypersensitive to the drug

a. tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of the drug

A sign of anaphylactic shock that would require epinephrine administration is:

a. hypotension

b. tachycardia

c. hives

d. flushed skin

a. hypotension

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individual who provide it are typically regulated by the:

a. state office of EMS

b. regional trauma center

c. American Heart Association

d. National Registry of EMTs

a. state office of EMS

First responders, such as firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because:

a. the presence of a person trained to initiate BLS care cannot be ensured

b. they are often trained to assist the advanced level EMT with procedures

c. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes

d. they can initiate certain advanced life support procedures before EMS arrival

c. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:

a. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful

b. demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport

c. ignore the patients feelings and focus on their medical complaint

d. reassure your patient everything will be alright, even if it will not be.

a. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful

Continuing education in EMS serves to:

a. prove research and statistical findings in prehospital care

b. maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills

c. enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training

d. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system

b. maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills

Which of the following statements would not be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient?

a. "Things will get better in time"

b. "It is okay to be angry and sad"

c. "This must be painful for you"

d. "Tell me how you are feeling"

a. "Things will get better in time"

Immediate intubation should be considered for trauma patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of _________ or lower.

a. 2

b. 5

c. 8

d. 10

c. 8

What is, in lpm, the highest flow rate on a demand valve device?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 30

d. 15

b. 40

Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing is called:

a. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

b. Kussmaul's respirations

c. agonal respirations

d. Biot's respirations

a. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

The EMT shows that he is correctly using the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device when he:

a. increases pressure if the air enters the stomach instead of the lungs

b. stops ventilating as soon as the patients' chest begins to rise

c. administers each ventilation over a two to three second period

d. ventilates the patient at a rate of 20 breaths per minute

b. stops ventilating as soon as the patients' chest begins to rise

You are assessing a patient with altered mental status. Which assessment finding contraindicates the use of a nonrebreather face mask?

a. clear and equal breath sounds

b. confusion

c. respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

d. respiratory rate of 18, with poor tidal volume

d. respiratory rate of 18, with poor tidal volume

The simplest airway management technique in a patient with a suspected cervical spine injury is the:

a. use of an oral airway

b. Sellick's maneuver

c. modified jaw thrust maneuver

d. head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver

d. head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver

The patient with COPD may benefit from oxygen delivery through a venturi mask because:

a. it delivers intermittent positive pressure to the airway

b. oxygen concentration is controlled more carefully

c. it both protects the airway and delivers oxygen

d. it delivers the highest oxygen concentration possible

b. oxygen concentration is controlled more carefully

When a bag-valve ventilation device is used without supplemental oxygen, it delivers an oxygen concentration of _________ percent.

a. 21

b. 26

c. 60

d. 40

a. 21

You should be prepared to immediately intubate any patient with respiratory distress who is exhibiting:

a. a heart rate over 100

b. a pulse oximetry reading of 90 percent or less

c. wheezing

d. altered mentation

d. altered mentation

In which of the following conditions is insertion of a nasogastric tube contraindicated?

a. being awake and alert

b. having a gag reflex

c. facial fractures

d. all of the above

c. facial fractures

In an adult, the narrowest part of the airway is the:

a. larynx

b. hypopharynx

c. trachea

d. cricoid cartilage

a. larynx

Which of the following factors is related to an increased likelihood of airway burns?

a. unresponsiveness in the burning environment

b. inhalation of hot steam

c. screaming or yelling in a burning environment

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

What percentage of oxygen is delivered by a simple face mask?

a. 40-60

b. 60-80

c. 80-90

d. 95-100

a. 40-60

Applying posteriorly directed pressure on the cricoid cartilage to facilitate endotracheal intubation is called:

a. retrograde intubation

b. digital intubation

c. Sellick's maneuver

d. cricothyroidotomy

c. Sellick's maneuver

When monitoring a patient receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula, which one of the following observations warrants immediate intervention?

a. tubing positioned over the ears and under the chin

b. prongs in the nostrils curving posteriorly into the nose

c. breathing normally with the nasal cannula in place

d. oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm

d. oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm

You are artificially ventilating an adult male patient who is in respiratory arrest with a bag-valve mask. Which one of the following shows that you are ventilating the patient properly?

a. clear and equal breath sounds

b. ability to fully deflate the self-inflating bag

c. adequate chest rise and fall

d. ventilation rate of 20 breaths per minute

c. adequate chest rise and fall

A _____________ is an example of a dual lumen airway.

a. esophageal obturator airway (EOA)

b. endotracheal tube

c. laryngeal mask airway (LMA)

d. combitube

d. combitube

Which one of the following statements indicates that the EMT has an accurate understanding of the bronchioles?

a. "They are large airways located before the carina and are made of cartilage."

b. "They are large structures that pass oxygen from the lungs directly into the blood stream."

c. "They are small air sacs located just before the alveoli."

d. "They are small passages located in the lower airway that have smooth muscle surrounding them."

d. "They are small passages located in the lower airway that have smooth muscle surrounding them."

Which one of the following best describes the path that oxygen must travel to get to the body cells?

a. oropharynx, larynx, trachea, carina, bronchioles

b. pharynx, larynx, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles

c. nasopharynx, oropharynx, carina, trachea, alveoli

d. nose, pharynx, esophagus, bronchi, alveoli

a. oropharynx, larynx, trachea, carina, bronchioles

You are observing an EMT insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36 year old male who has overdosed on a street drug. Which one of the following observations indicates correct technique?

a. the oral airway is introduced sideways into the mouth, and then rotated 180 degrees once it has reached the base of the tongue

b. the airway is inserted into the mouth upside-down and is then turned 180 degrees once it contacts the soft palate

c. the airway is inserted in its normal anatomic position until the flange of the airway is 1 cm above the lips

d. the EMT uses a tongue depressor to press the back of the tongue downward, and then inserts the oral airway upside-down

b. the airway is inserted into the mouth upside-down and is then turned 180 degrees once it contacts the soft palate

When intubating an adult patient, the onset of bradycardia is most likely due to:

a. increased intercranial pressure

b. hypoxia

c. hypercarbia

d. stimulation of the vagus nerve

d. stimulation of the vagus nerve

The tip of a curved laryngoscope blade is placed correctly:

a. in the vallecula

b. at the junction of the hard and soft palates

c. under the epiglottis

d. at the glottic opening

a. in the vallecula

Which one of the following statements shows that the EMT knows how to properly size an oral airway prior to placement?

a. "An appropriate sized oral airway can be selected by looking in the patient's mouth and estimating the length of the tongue."

b. "The airway should approximate the distance from the front teeth to the angle of the jaw."

c. "It is better to have an oral airway that is too large, rather than one that is too small."

d. "To select an appropriately sized oral airway, you must estimate the patient's height and weight."

b. "The airway should approximate the distance from the front teeth to the angle of the jaw."

All of the following drugs can be administered through an endotracheal tube EXCEPT:

a. naloxone

b. lidocaine

c. dextrose

d. epinephrine

c. dextrose

In which of the following situations would you expect end tidal carbon dioxide levels to be very low, despite a patent airway?

a. hyperthermia

b. the patient is being ventilated with room air

c. hypoventilation

d. the patient is in cardiac arrest

d. the patient is in cardiac arrest

You must suction copious secretions from the mouth and pharynx of a 31 year old male patient whose respiration rate is four breathes per minute. Which one of the following interventions is most appropriate given the patient's condition?

a. suction for no more than 15 seconds at the time followed by two minutes of positive pressure ventilation

b. place the patient into a side-lying position and alternate 30 seconds of suctioning and ventilation

c. use a soft tip catheter and suction for no more than 30 seconds before providing additional oxygen with a nonrebreather face mask

d. forego suctioning and continue to provide positive pressure ventilation

a. suction for no more than 15 seconds at the time followed by two minutes of positive pressure ventilation

A high-pitched inspiratory noise caused by a partial upper airway obstruction is called:

a. stridor

b. dysphonia

c. wheezing

d. rhonchi

a. stridor

The major drawback of mouth-to-mouth ventilation is:

a. the inability to achieve adequate tidal volumes for ventilation

b. an oxygen level in the rescuer's exhaled air of only 10-12%

c. a high level of carbon dioxide in the rescuer's exhaled air

d. potential exposure of the rescuer to communicable disease

d. potential exposure of the rescuer to communicable disease

The automatic transport ventilator is contraindicated for all of the following intubated patients EXCEPT a:

a. 34 year old with adult respiratory distress syndrome

b. 56 year old male in pulmonary edema

c. 4 year old near drowning victim

d. 17 year old gun shot victim

d. 17 year old gun shot victim

Which of the following is the correct order of events after an endotracheal tube has been properly inserted?

a. inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, secure the tube

b. inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air, secure the tube, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium

c. secure the tube, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air

d. inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, secure the tube

d. inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, secure the tube

A musical, squeaking, or whistling sound that may be heard on inspiration or expiration while auscultating lung fields is known as:

a. rhonchi

b. wheeing

c. crackles

d. stridor

b. wheeing

An attempt at endotracheal intubation must not interrupt ventilations for more than ___________ seconds

a. 10

b. 15

c. 30

d. 45

c. 30

The EMT is correctly performing the jaw-thrust maneuver when she:

a. places her hands on the side of the patient's head and lifts the jaw upward

b. maintains the head in a neutral position and slightly tilts the head backwards

c. opens the airway by slightly extending the head and thrusting the jaw upward

d. places one hand on the forehead and lifts the jaw upward with her other hand

a. places her hands on the side of the patient's head and lifts the jaw upward

Which one of the following statements about the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device is true?

a. "It is very easy to use and has virtually no complications associated with its use."

b. "It is an effective tool by which children can be ventilated."

c. "It has a safety valve that prevents lung damage from over-inflation."

d. "It can be used to ventilate spontaneously breathing patients."

d. "It can be used to ventilate spontaneously breathing patients."

Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction?

a. food

b. the tongue

c. upper airway edema

d. foreign bodies

b. the tongue

When assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation, which one of the following best indicates that the patient has an open airway?

a. the breath sounds are clear

b. the respiratory rate is normal

c. the patient speaks with ease

d. the patient is conscious

c. the patient speaks with ease

Which of the following interferes with ventilation in the presence of a flail segment?

a. the ability to generate negative intrathoracic pressure is impaired

b. the ability to generate positive intrathoracic pressure is impaired

c. intrathoracic pressure decreases on the affected side

d. intrathoracic pressure increases on the affected side

a. the ability to generate negative intrathoracic pressure is impaired

The tip of the endotracheal tube for the pediatric patient should be inserted ______ cm below the vocal cords.

a. 2-3

b. 3-4

c. 1-2

d. 4-5

a. 2-3

Which of the following increases the risk of foreign body airway obstruction?

a. dentures

b. age

c. alcohol consumption

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Moderate hypoxia is indicated with a pulse oximeter reading of ________ percent.

a. 86-91

b. 95-100

c. 90-94

d. 81-85

a. 86-91

Ventilation of ______ is the likely consequence of inserting an endotracheal tube too far.

a. the right lung only

b. only the lower lobes of both lungs

c. the left lung only

d. neither lung

a. the right lung only

You are assessing a patient with congestive heart failure, and you determine that her failing heart is causing fluid to collect and fill her alveoli. Based on this pathophysiology, for which one of the following pulmonary complications should the EMT treat the patient?

a. collapse of the bronchi

b. swelling of the tongue

c. decreased blood pressure

d. decreased gas exchange

d. decreased gas exchange

Which of the following is an advantage of the two-person method of bag-valve-mask ventilation?

a. reduces the risk of gastric distention

b. can provide tidal volumes of 1200-1500 mL

c. delivers higher concentration of oxygen

d. easier to maintain a seal between the patient's face and the mask

d. easier to maintain a seal between the patient's face and the mask

Which one of the following statements made by an EMT shows that she understands how to suction patients in a field setting?

a. "To thoroughly suction a patient, I insert the rigid tip catheter past the base of the tongue and into the pharynx."

b. "It is helpful to pour sterile water into the patient's mouth to liquefy vomit and make it easier to suction."

c. "When caring for a young child, I suction for a minimum of 5 seconds."

d. "I only activate the suction device when I am withdrawing the suction catheter."

d. "I only activate the suction device when I am withdrawing the suction catheter."

Which of the following basic airway adjuncts prevents the tongue from falling back to occlude the airway?

a. oropharyngeal airway

b. nasal cannula

c. Yankauer catheter

d. laryngeal mask airway

a. oropharyngeal airway

Which one of the following statements about a nasal cannula is true?

a. "The nasal cannula is preferred over the nonrebreather mask because it gives the oxygen through the nose instead of the mouth."

b. "When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, a large portion of the air inspired by the patient is ambient air."

c. "I can adjust the oxygen flow rate anywhere from 1-8 lpm, depending on how much oxygen the patient needs."

d. "It is best to see how the patient tolerates the nasal cannula before attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on the patient."

d. "It is best to see how the patient tolerates the nasal cannula before attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on the patient."

The reading obtained by the use of a pulse oximeter reflects the:

a. ratio of unsaturated hemoglobin to saturated hemoglobin

b. amount of saturated hemoglobin per deciliter of blood

c. amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood

d. partial pressure of oxygen in capillary blood

a. ratio of unsaturated hemoglobin to saturated hemoglobin

When using the end-tidal carbon dioxide detector, the absence of carbon dioxide in exhaled air after six breaths indicates the endotracheal tube has been placed:

a. in the left mainstem bronchus

b. correctly

c. in the esophagus

d. in the right mainstem bronchus

c. in the esophagus

Which of the following manual airway maneuvers should be used when caring for a patient with a suspected cervical spine injury?

a. head-tilt/chin-lift

b. Sellick's

c. jaw-thrust maneuver

d. jaw/tongue lift

c. jaw-thrust maneuver

A drop in blood pressure of greater than 10 torr during inspiration is called:

a. pulsus paradoxus

b. pulsus alternans

c. pulsus tardus

d. pulsus obliterans

a. pulsus paradoxus

When intubating a stoma site, how far beyond the distal cuff (in cm) should you insert the endotracheal tube?

a. 4-5

b. 3-4

c. 1-2

d. 2-3

c. 1-2

Without adequate airway maintenance and ventilation, the patient can succumb to brain injury or death in how many minutes?

a. 2-4

b. 4-6

c. 6-10

d. 10-12

c. 6-10

When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, the EMT should remember that the:

a. oil-based lubricant is needed for smooth insertion

b. patient cannot be responsive nor have a gag reflex

c. head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust is not needed after insertion

d. nasal mucosa may bleed even with proper insertion

d. nasal mucosa may bleed even with proper insertion

The EMT is appropriately sizing the nasal airway when she measures the:

a. distance from the nose to the earlobe

b. distance from the mouth to the angle of the jaw

c. diameter of the patient's little finger

d. diameter of the larger nostril

a. distance from the nose to the earlobe

A properly placed ______ effectively isolates the trachea for ventilation and protection from aspiration.

a. laryngeal mask airway (LMA)

b. dual lumen airway (Combitube)

c. endotracheal tube

d. all of the above

c. endotracheal tube

In which of the following patients would the use of a combitube dual lumen airway be contraindicated?

a. a 59 year old male with a history of chronic alcoholism who was found in cardiac arrest at a homeless shelter

b. a 16 year old female who is unresponsive following a motor vehicle accident in which she was ejected, sustaining traumatic brain injury

c. a 40 year old female who has taken an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants and is unresponsive to all stimuli

d. a 28 year old male who is in cardiac arrest after his kayak capsized, trapping him underwater for several minutes

a. a 59 year old male with a history of chronic alcoholism who was found in cardiac arrest at a homeless shelter

Which one of the following actions indicates that the EMT is correctly using a nonrebreather face mask on an adult patient?

a. he ensures the reservoir fully collapses with each breath

b. he sets the oxygen flow rate to between 6 and 16 lpm

c. he fully inflates the reservoir prior to placing it on the patient

d. he instructs the patient to take deeper breaths when the mask is on

c. he fully inflates the reservoir prior to placing it on the patient

End tidal colorimetric capnography measures:

a. the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

b. carbon dioxide in exhaled air

c. the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma

d. the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with carbon dioxide

b. carbon dioxide in exhaled air

When correctly placed, the tip of a straight laryngoscope blade should be:

a. in the vallecula

b. at the soft palate

c. at the uvula

d. under the epiglottis

d. under the epiglottis

During a respiratory assessment, the absence of breath sounds may indicate a:

a. bronchitis

b. pneumothorax

c. flail chest

d. pulmonary embolism

b. pneumothorax

A peak flow meter measures:

a. the maximum rate of airflow during forced expiration

b. tidal volume

c. the force expiratory volume

d. inspiratory reserve volume

c. the force expiratory volume

Which one of the following statements about airway management in the trauma patient is correct?

a. trauma patients should always have their airway opened with the jaw-thrust while medical patients should receive the head tilt-chin lift

b. performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure or paralyze the patient

c. the jaw-thrust is useful in the trauma patient, but only if her or she is complaining of head or neck pain

d. research has show that the jaw-thrust is easier to perform and is therefore indicated for the more critical trauma patient

b. performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure or paralyze the patient

A portable suction device should generate a flow rate of ____________ lpm when the tube is open.

a. 20

b. 50

c. 30

d. 40

c. 30

Which of the following conditions serves as an important visual landmark when performing endotracheal intubation under direct intubation?

a. arytenoid cartilage

b. cricothyroid membrane

c. thyroid cartilage

d. cricoid cartilage

a. arytenoid cartilage

With which of the following conditions should you NOT attempt endotracheal intubation of the patient unless airway failure is imminent?

a. respiratory syncyctial virus (RSV) infections

b. COPD

c. pulmonary embolism

d. epiglottitis

d. epiglottitis

Which of the following indicates an esophageal intubation?

a. not seeing the tip of the endotracheal tube pass through the vocal cords

b. maintaining a pulse oximetry reading of 80-85%

c. color change from purple to yellow with a colorimetric ETCO2 detector

d. free return of air when aspirating with an esophageal detector device

a. not seeing the tip of the endotracheal tube pass through the vocal cords

What is the preferred method of providing high-concentration oxygen in the prehospital setting?

a. simple face mask

b. venturi mask

c. nasal cannula

d. nonrebreather face mask

d. nonrebreather face mask

Which of the following statements about manual airway maneuvers is true?

a. they require specialized equipment

b. they are difficult to learn

c. they are often neglected by EMTs and paramedics

d. they are contraindicated in trauma patients

c. they are often neglected by EMTs and paramedics

The EMT has just placed an oropharyngeal airway in a patient. By doing so, which one of the following has the EMT accomplished?

a. secured the tongue away from the back of the airway

b. minimized the risk of vomiting by closing off the esophagus

c. protected the airway from vomit or other secretions

d. obtained a patent airway by preventing closure of the mouth

a. secured the tongue away from the back of the airway

The maximum flow rate to be used with a nasal cannula is _________ lpm

a. 4

b. 6

c. 10

d. 8

b. 6

The aspiration of vomitus into the lungs may result in:

a. pneumonia

b. tissue damage

c. pulmonary edema

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following about use of a dual lumen airway is true?

a. it may be used for adult or pediatric patients

b. it may be inserted in patients with a gag reflex

c. it requires no neck hyperextension

d. it is not recommended in trauma patients

c. it requires no neck hyperextension

Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulse oximetry?

a. pulse oximetry gives no information about the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood

b. pulse oximetry cannot differentiate between hemoglobin bound to oxygen and hemoglobin bound to carbon monoxide

c. tissue hypoxia may be present even with a normal SaO2 reading

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

The hypoxic drive is stimulated by:

a. high PaO2

b. low PaCO2

c. low PaO2

d. high PaCO2

d. high PaCO2

The second-highest level of prehospital care provider is the:

a. physician's assistant

b. paramedic

c. nurse practitioner

d. EMT-I

d. EMT-I

The EMT-I must be able to function ___________ at an optimum level in a non-structured, constantly changing environment

a. fully

b. thoroughly

c. independently

d. occasionally

c. independently

To practice, the EMT-I must be approved not only by a state or provincial agency but also by:

a. a federal bureau

b. local authorities

c. a professional organization

d. the EMS system's medical director

d. the EMS system's medical director

The primary concern of the EMT-I is:

a. the orders of the medical director

b. the emergency patient

c. the integrity of the unit

d. following system protocols

b. the emergency patient

_______________ is accomplished by entering a person's name and essential information within a particular record.

a. certification

b. reciprocity

c. licensure

d. registration

d. registration

______________ refers to the conduct or qualities that characterize a practitioner in a particular field or occupation.

a. ethics

b. standards

c. professionalism

d. etiquette

c. professionalism