[HOSPITAL PHARMACY] PACOP BLUE

D

It is refers to the responsible of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve a

patients quality of life

A. Professional - patient relationship

B. Therapeutic drug monitoring

C. Drug therapy assessment

D. Pharmaceutical care

E. Formal documentation

A

It involves measuring directly and indirect cost attributable to a specific disease.

A. Cost-of -illness evaluation

B. Cost-effectiveness analysis

C. Cost-minimization analysis

D. Cost-utility analysis

E. Cost- benefit analysis

E

The method that allows for identification, measurement, and comparison of the costs of a program or

treatment alternative

A. Cost-of -illness evaluation

B. Cost-effectiveness analysis

C. Cost-minimization analysis

D. Cost-utility analysis

E. Cost- benefit analysis

C

The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternative when comparing two or more

treatment alternatives

A. Cost-of -illness evaluation

B. Cost-effectiveness analysis

C. Cost-minimization analysis

D. Cost-utility analysis

E. Cost- benefit analysis

D

The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life

A. Cost-of -illness evaluation

B. Cost-effectiveness analysis

C. Cost-minimization analysis

D. Cost-utility analysis

E. Cost- benefit analysis

B

A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care programs so that

policy makers can choose among them

A. Cost-of -illness evaluation

B. Cost-effectiveness analysis

C. Cost-minimization analysis

D. Cost-utility analysis

E. Cost- benefit analysis

B

It refers to the value assigned to duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions,

and social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy

A. Optimum health

B. Quality of life

C. Health outcomes

D. Responsiveness

E. Wellness of being

D

A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which group or intervention

the subjects has been assigned

A. Randomized control trial

B. Crossover study

C. Cohort study

D. Blinded study

E. Cross-sectional study

B

A retrospective comparison of casual factors or exposures in a group of persons with disease and those of

persons without disease

A. Randomized control trial

B. Case control study

C. Cohort study

D. Meta analysis

E. Open-label trial

D

A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined groups in which a

variable of interest is measured

A. Cross sectional study

B. Case control study

C. Cross over study

D. Cohort study

E. Pen label study

B

A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are switched to the other

A. Cross sectional study

B. Cross over study

C. Meta analysis

D. Open label trial

E. Cohort study

A

A study that examines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a defined population

A. Cross sectional study

B. Cohort study

C. Case control study

D. Cross over study

E. Case series

D

Which of the following best describes the neonates?

A. Those who are 1 month to 1 year of age

B. Those who are 1 year to 12 year of age

C. Those who are 12 to 16 years of age

D. Those between 1 day and 1 month of age

E. Those born before 37 weeks of gestational age

A

Which of the following best describes the infants?

A. Those who are 1 month to 1 year of age

B. Those who are 1 year to 12 year of age

C. Those who are 12 to 16 years of age

D. Those between 1 day and 1 month of age

E. Those born before 32 weeks of gestational age

D

Clinical manifestations of gray baby syndrome include:

I. Characteristic gray color

II. Abdominal distention

III. Hypertension

IV. Progressive shock

A. I only

B. I and IV only

C. I,II, and III only

D. I, II, and IV only

E. I and III only

B

Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide?

I. Polyneuritis

II. Mental retardation

III. Limb deformities

A. I only

B. I, II and III only

C. II and III only

D. III only

E. I and III only

D

Factors that increase the risk of drug related problems in the elderly include

I. Polypharmacy

II. Inappropriate prescribing

III. Medication adherence

IV. Multiple diseases

A. I only

B. I, II and III only

C. II and IV only

D. I, II and IV only

E. I, II, III, and IV

B

Potential difficulties that may occue while taking medication histories from the elderly include:

I. Impaired hearingII. Mental acuity

III. Multiple diseases and medication

IV. Reliance on a caregiver for the history

A. I, II and III only

B. I, III and IV only

C. II, III and IV only

D. I, II and IV only

E. I, II, III and IV

B

Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of marketed drugs

A. Pharmacoepidemiology

B. Pharmacovigilance

C. Pharmacoinformatics

D. Pharmacogenetics

E. Pharmacogenomics

A

Study the use of and effectsof drugs in a large number of people

A. Pharmacoepidemiology

B. Pharmacovigilance

C. Pharmacoinformatics

D. Pharmacogenetics

E. Pharmacogenomics

D

Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for

prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy

A. Adverse drug event

B. Allergy

C. Hypersensitivity

D. Adverse drug reaction

E. Idiosyncrasy

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding chest X-ray?

I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and usually the first

diagnostic test in a cardiac workup.

II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures.

III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and surrounding

anatomy.

A. I only

B. I, II and III

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

E. II and III only

E

The manifestations of chromium deficiency include:

I. Alopecia

II. Depigmentation of hair and skin

III. Red blood cell fragility

IV. Glucose intolerance

A. I and II only

B. II and IV only

C. I, II, III and IV

D. III only

E. IV only

E

The manifestation of zinc deficiency include:

I. Poor wound healing

II. Poor growth

III. Poor resistance to infection

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and IV only

D. III only

E. I, II and III

C

Incompatibilities with fat emulsion cause majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which of the following

affects lipid stability in TPN preparations?

I. Nature of amino acid solution

II. pH

III. the amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution

IV. electrolyte content

A. I, II and III onlyB. II, III and IV only

C. I, II and IV only

D. I and II only

E. I and IV only

D

Ascorbic acid is the most rapidly oxidized vitamin. The rate of oxidation depends on:

I. Electrolyte content

II. Presence of trace animals

III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution

IV. pH

A. IV only

B. II and III only

C. I, II and III

D. II, III and IV only

E. II and IV only

C

Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamins?

A. Riboflavin

B. Niacin

C. Thiamine

D. Cevitamic acid

E. Ascorbic acid

E

Which of the following are associated with dilutional hyponatremia?

I. Administration of albumin

II. Congestive heart failure

III. Cirrhosis

A. II only

B. II and III only

C. I and II only

D. I only

E. I, II and III

B

Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?

I. End product of protein metabolism

II. Product by liver and kidney

III. Filtered completely at glomerulus

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

E. I only

D

Which of the following accurately describes creatinine?

I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney

II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus

III. Metabolized by the kidney

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?

I. Also called serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase

II. Abundant in heart and liver tissue

III. Used to evaluate myocardial injury and case prognosis of liver disease resulting from

heparocellular injury

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. II and III only

E. III only

A

Which of the following is/are true regarding the comparison of ALT and AST enzyme?

I. ALT elevations persist longer than those of AST

II. ALT is more liver specific

III. The liver contains 3.5 times more AST than ALT

A. I, II and III

B. I and II only

C. II and III onlyD. I and III only

E. II only

D

Which of the following may result to a decrease in hematocrit?

I. Hemolysis

II. Polycythemia vera

III. Sickle cell anemia

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

E. I, II and III

C

According to the seventh report of the Joint National Committee (JNC 7), which of the following best

describes the normal blood pressure?

A. An SBP less than 130, and DBP less than 85

B. An SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 to 89

C. An SBP less than 120, and DBP less than 80

D. An SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 to 99

E. An SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100

D

According to JNC 7, which of the following best describes Stage 1 hypertension?

A. An SBP less than 130, and DBP less than 85

B. An SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 to 89

C. An SBP less than 120, and DBP less than 80

D. An SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 to 99

E. An SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100

C

Which of the following are the objectives of evaluating patients with documented hypertension?

I. To assess lifestyle and identify other cardiovascular risk factors or concomitant that may

affect prognosis and guide treatment

II. To reveal identifiable causes of high blood pressure and allow patient self-medication

III. To assess the presence or absence of target organ damage and cardiovascular disease

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I, II and III only

E. I and III only

D

Routine laboratory tests for hypertension recommended before initiating therapy include:

I. Electrocardiogram

II. Urinary albumin excretion

III. Blood glucose and hematocrit

IV. Lipid profile

A. I and IV only

B. I and II only

C. I, II and III only

D. I, III and IV only

E. I, II and IV only

E

Lifestyle modifications for hypertension include:

I. Diet rich in potassium and calcium

II. Physical activity

III. Moderation of alcohol consumption

IV. Weight reduction for overweight and obese patients

A. II, III and IV only

B. I, III and IV only

C. I, II and IV only

D. I, II and III only

E. I, II, III and IV

A

Which of the following diuretics should be used as initial therapy for most patients with hypertension, either

alone or in combination?

A. Thiazide diuretics

B. Loop diuretics

C. Potassium-sparing diuretics

D. Osmotic diuretics

E. A and B

B

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the potential unfavorable effectrs of anti hypertensive

drug choices?I. Thiazide diuretics should be used cautiously in patients with gout

II. Beta blockers should generally be avoided in individuals with asthma

III. Aldosterone antagonists and potassium-sparing diuretics can cause hypokalemia

A. I, II and III

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. II and III only

E. I only

E

Factors that increase the chances of patients' non adherence to antihypersensitive therapy include:

I. Misunderstanding of condition or treatment

II. Lack of patient involvement in the care plan

III. Unexpected adverse effects of medications

IV. Complexity of care

A. I and II only

B. III and Iv only

C. I, II and III only

D. I, II and IV only

E. I, II, III, and IV

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding cholesterol?

I. It is naturally occurring alcohol

II. It is the precursor molecule for the synthesis of the bile acids and steroid hormones

III. It is used by the body to form cell membranes

A. II only

B. II and III only

C. I and II only

D. III only

E. I, II and III

E

General principles of the diet therapy intended to lower cholesterol include:

I. Choose foods high in complex carbohydrates like starch and fiber

II. Replace monounsaturated fats with saturated fats and fish oils

III. Eat less high-fat, high cholesterol foods

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III

E. I and III

E

Which of the following i/are true regarding bile acid resins as part of management of hypercholesterolemia?

I. Resins are not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and thus lack systemic toxicity

II. They reduce total LDL cholesterol in a dose-independent manner

III. They have a strong record established from years of use

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III

E. I and III

E

Which of the following is/are the side effects of bile acid resins?

I. Constipation

II. Bloating and epigastric fullness

III. Nausea

IV. Flatulence

A. I and II only

B. II and IV only

C. I and IV only

D. II, III and IV only

E. I, II ,III and IV

A

Which of the following is/are true regarding niacin in the management of hypercholesterolemia?

I. It inhibits the mobilization of free acids from peripheral adipose tissue to the liver

II. It reduces the synthesis and secretion of VLDL particles by the liver

III. One of its side effects is vasoconstriction which leads to flushing, itching and headache

A. I and II only

B. II and IV only

C. I and IV only

D. II, III and IV only

E. I, II, III and IV

B

Which of the following drugs has the most potent cholesterol lowering potential?

A. Bile acid resins

B. HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors

C. Beta Blockers

D. ACE inhibitors

E. Calcium Channel Blockers

D

Drug interactions with statins that result in higher blood levels of the statin or active metabolite can increase

risk of myositis. Which of the following statins are most vulnerable to this interaction?

A. Atorvastatin and Pravastatin

B. Fluvastatin and Simvastatin

C. Cerivastatin and Lovastatin

D. Lovastatin and Simvastastin

E. Atorvastatin and Fluvastatin

A

A small part of clot that braeks off and travels to another part of the vascular system

A. Embolus

B. Thrombosis

C. Infarction

D. Ischemia

E. Stroke

A

Which of the following are the primary factors that influence the information of pathologic clots?

I. Abnormalities of blood flow that cause venous stasis

II. Abnormalities of blood vessel walls

III. Hypocoagubility resulting from alterations in the availability or the integrity of blood

clotting components

A. I and II only

B. II and III onyl

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. I only

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding heparin?

I. A rapid-acting anticoagulant that is effective only when administered parenterally

II. Obtained from bovine lung or porcine intestinal mucosa

III. Acts by binding to the naturally circulating anticoagulant antithrombin II

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. I only

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding warfarin?

I. Acts as vitamin K agonist

II. A rapid-acting anticoagulant that is effective only when administered parenterally

III. Rapidly and completely absorbed in the upper gastrointestinal tract

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. I only

C

Which of the following is/are true regarding prothrombin Time (PT)?

I. Prolonged by deficiencies of clotting factors II, V, VII and X

II. Reflects alterations in the intrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade

III. The internationally recognized standard for monitoring warfarin therapy when expressed

as INR

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. I only

B

Which of the following is/are true regarding Activated Partial Thrombopalstin time (aPTT)?

I. Reflects alterations in the extrinsic and common pathways of clotting cascade

II. Used to monitor heparin therapy

III. Performed by adding a surface-activating agent, a partial thromboplastin reagent, and

calcium to the plasma sample

A. I onlyB. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. I only

B

A clinical syndrome characterized by discomfort in the chest, jaw, shoulder, back or arm

A. Atrial fibrillation

B. Angina pectoris

C. Myocardial infarction

D. Deep vein thrombosis

E. Ischemic heart disease

D

Which of the following statements describe/s accurately events in the process of atherosclerosis?

I. Extracellular lipids accumulate and undergo oxidation

II. As lesions progress, smooth muscle cells migrate proliferate and secrete large amounts

of extracellular matrix

III. The end result is the presence of an elevated plaque, which occludes the vessel lumen

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I, II and III

D. III only

E. II only

D

A type angina which can be induced by exertion, emotional stress, or a heavy meal, and can be relieved by

rest, nitroglycerin, or both

A. Prinzmetal's angina

B. Angina decubitus

C. Unstable angina

D. Stable or classic angina

E. Preinfarction angina

A

A type of angina precipitated by coronary artery spasm that reduces blood flow, and usually occurs at rest

rather than with exertion or emotional stress

A. Prinzmetal's angina

B. Angina decubitus

C. Unstable angina

D. Stable or classic angina

E. Preinfarction angina

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding the mechanism of action of nitrates?

I. Causes venous dilation, which reduces left ventricular volume and myocardial wall

tension, decreasing oxygen requirements

II. Reduces arteriolar resistance, helping to reduce afterload, which decreases myocardial

oxygen demand

III. Facilitates collateral circulation by reducing pressure in cardiac tissues

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. III only

E

Nitrate tolerance is one major problem with the long-term use of nitroglycerin and long-acting nitrates. Which

of the following drugs have shown to be capable of reversing this phenomenon?

I. Acetylcysteine

II. Beta blockers

III. Ace inhibitors

IV. Diuretics

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. II, III and IV only

D. I, III and IV only

E. I, II, III and IV

B

Considered drug of choice in treatment of angina at rest

A. Nitroglycerin

B. Calcium-channel blockers

C. ACE inhibitors

D. Beta blockers

E. Clopidogrel

A

Used for the same arrhythmias for which quinidine is given, but possess added concern when used

intravenously because of increased cardiovascular effects such as hypotrension syncope and myocardial

depression.

A. Procainamide

B. Disopyramide

C. Tocainamide

D. Mexiletine

E. Flecainide

C

Most commonly used to treat digitalis-induced ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias

A. Propafenone

B. Flecainide

C. Phenytoin

D. Quinidine

E. Propanolol

A

Class I anti-arrhythmias work by blocking the rapid inward sodium current and thereby slow sown the rate of

rise of the cardiac tissue's action potential. Which sub classification moderately reduces the depolarization

rate and prolong repolarization?

A. Class IA

B. Class IB

C. classic

D. class ID

E. Class IA and IB

D

Which of the following is/are not associated with cinchonism caused by quinidine?

I. Hearing loss

II. Photophobia

III. Tinnitus

IV. Blurred vision

A. I and II only

B. III and IV only

C. I, II and III only

D. I, III and IV only

E. II, III and IV only

C

Among the type III antiarrhythmics listed below, which has been reported as causing Torsades de pointes

type of ventricular tachycardia?

A. Sotalol

B. Flecainaide

C. Amiodarone

D. Quinidine

E. Lidocaine

D

A class I antiarrhythmic drug that can causes fatigue, arthralgia, myalgia, and low-grade fever, suggestive of

systemic lupus erythematosus like syndrome

A. Flecainide

B. Disopyramide

C. Mexilitine

D. Procainamide

E. Quinolone

A

A class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

A. Verapamil

B. Disopyramide

C. Mexilitine

D. Procainamide

E. Ibutilide

A

The New York heart association functional limitation class indicates that the degree of effort necessary to

elicit Heart failure symptoms is equal to those that would limit normal individuals

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

C

The New York heart association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary

to elicit Heart failure symptoms occurs with less than ordinary exertion

A. Class I

B. Class IIC. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

D

The New York heart association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary

to elicit Heart failure symptoms occurs while at rest

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

D

Refers to the for that exerted on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole that determines the degree of

muscle fiber stretch

A. Frank-string mechanism

B. Afterload

C. Cardiac output

D. Preload

E. Decompensation

B

Determined by the amount of force needed to overcome pressure in the aorta

A. Frank-string mechanism

B. Afterload

C. Cardiac output

D. Preload

E. Decompensation

E

Which of the following is/are true regarding precautions with the use of digoxin

I. Increased potassium levels favor digoxin binding to cardiac cells and increase its effect

II. Increased calcium levels increase the force of myocardial contraction

III. Magnesium levels are inversely related to digoxin activity

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

E. II and III only

D

Which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects intreating the patient

with Heart failure?

A. 40 mg/kg/min

B. 40 mcg/kg/min

C. 10-20 mcg/kg/min

D. 5-10 mcg/kg/min

E. 2 mcg/kg/min

B

A loop diuretic that is used as a rapid-acting intravenous agent in reversing acute pulmonary edema

A. Ethacrynic acid

B. Furosemide

C. Spironolactone

D. Bumetinide

E. Mannitol

D

Diuretics which have become preferred due to their ability to increase sodium excretion by 20-25% of the

filtered load and to maintain their efficacy until renal function is severly impaired

I. Spironolactone

II. Ethacrynic acid

III. Furosemide

IV. Bumetanide

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I, II and III only

D. II, III and IV only

E. I, III and IV only

E

Which of the following may be used in the acute management of digitalis toxicity?

I. Potassium

II. Cholestyramine resin

III. Fab fragment antibody

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II onlyD. I and III only

E. I, II and III

C

Which of the following best describes isoniazid?

A. May be nephrotoxic and ototoxic

B. Has limited use due to its hepatotoxic potential

C. Requires pyridoxine supplementation

D. May discolor the tears and urine orange re

E. A pyrazine analogue of nicotinamide

D

Which of the following may be treated with streptomycin

I. Bacterial endocarditis

II. Tularemia

III. Urinary tract infection

IV. Tuberculosis

A. I, II and III only

B. II, III and IV only

C. I and II only

D. II and IV only

E. III and IV only

A

Which of the following best illustrates the relative ototoxicity of aminoglycosides?

A. Streptomycin=kanamycin>amikacin=gentamicin

B. Kanamycin>streptomycin=tobramycin>amikacin

C. Streptomycin=gentamicin>kanamycin=amikacin

D. Kanamycin>streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin

E. Streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin>gentamicin

B

Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause primarily vestibular damage?

A. Neomycin and amikacin

B. Gentamicin and neomycin

C. Kanamycin and streptomycin

D. Amikacin and streptomycin

E. Amikacin and gentamicin

C

Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause mainly auditory damage?

A. Gentamicin and streptomycin

B. Streptomycin and neomycin

C. Amikacin and kanamycin

D. Kanamycin and streptomycin

E. Amikacin and gentamicin

A

Which is the least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

A. Streptomycin

B. Tobramycin

C. Neomycin

D. Amikacin

E. Netilmicin

C

Which is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

A. Streptomycin

B. Tobramycin

C. Neomycin

D. Amikacin

E. Netilmicin

E

Which carbapenem needs to be combined with cilastatin sodium to inhibit the action of renal dipeptidases to

this drug?

A. Aztreonam

B. Meropenem

C. Carbamazepine

D. Ertapenem

E. Imipenem

A

Which of the following is/are the routes of administration of Penicillin G sodium and potassium?

I. Intradermal

II. Intravenous

III. Intramuscular

IV. Oral

A. II, III and IV only

B. I, III and IV onlyC. II and III only

D. IV only

E. II and IV only

C

Anaphylaxis is a life threatening reaction that most commonly occurs with parenteral administration of

penicillin. The following are its sign and symptoms:

I. Nausea

II. Bronchoconstriction

III. Abdominal pain

IV. Severe hypertension

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I, II and III only

D. I, II and IV only

E. II only

D

With which antibiotics does antibiotic antagonism occur when given 1 hour of penicillin administration?

A. Tetracycline and cephalosporins

B. Aminoglycosides and macrolides

C. Carbapenems and vancomycin

D. Erythromycin and chloramphenicol

E. Carbenicillin and isoniazid

B

An extended spectrum penicillin that is 10 times as active as carbenicillin against Pseudomonas organisms?

A. Carbenicillin

B. Piperacillin

C. Ticarcillin

D. Mezlocillin

E. Tazobactam

D

Which of the following are manifestations of complex partial seizures?

I. Glassy stare

II. Visual, auditory, or olfactory hallucinations

III. Automation

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III only

E. III only

B

Seizures that present as alteration of consciousness lasting 10-30 seconds

A. Generalized seizures

B. Petit mal seizures

C. Myocolnic seizures

D. Tonic-clonic seizures

E. Complex partial seizures

D

In a grand mal seizure, which of the following may mark the clonic phase?

A. Contraction of the diaphragm

B. Aching of the back

C. Nausea

D. Muscle jerking and flaccidity of the muscle

E. Soreness

D

Which of the following is/are true regarding the tonic phase of a grand mal seizure?

I. The individual becomes rigid and falls

II. Respiration are interrupted

III. The tonic phase lasts for about a minute

IV. The individual may experience confusion and disorientation

A. I only

B. II only

C. I, II, III and IV

D. I, II, III only

E. I, II, IV only

E

Which of the following may comprise the postical phase of generalized tonic-clonic seizure?

I. Heavy salivation

II. Incontinence

III. Tachycardia

IV. Drowsiness

A. I, II, III and IVB. I, II and III only

C. I and II only

D. I, II and IV only

E. IV only

C

Which of the following is/are true regarding the major phases of seizure activity?

I. The ictal phase may precede the seizure by hours or days depending on the changes in

the behavior or mood of the patient

II. The proximal phase may include a subjective sensation, lethargy and confusion

III. The ictal phase is the seizure itself, and its onset is heralded by a scream or cry

A. I only

B. II only

C. II and III only

D. I and II only

E. I, II and III

B

Measures the electrical activity of the brain, and helps to identify cerebral changes underlying structural

abnormalities

A. CBC

B. EEG

C. MRI

D. PET

E. CSF

A

Which of the following is/are true regarding neurological imaging studies for seizures?

I. The MRI can detect brain lesions related to epilepsy

II. The PET measures the electrical activity of the brain

III. EEG offer functional views of the brain to detect hypermetabolism or relative hypoperfusion

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

E. II only

B

Which of the following anticonvulsants is contraindicated in patients with a history of tricyclic antidepressants

hypersensitivity?

A. Ethosuximide

B. Carbamazepine

C. Phenobarbital

D. Phenytoin

E. Gabapentin

C

What are the most common adverse effect of anticonvulsive drugs?

I. Alternation in cognition and mentation

II. Headaches and dizziness

III. Gastointestinal symptoms

A. II only

B. Carbamazepine

C. Phenobarbital

D. Phenytoin

E. Gabapentin