HESI Review

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Last updated 6:46 PM on 4/28/25
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57 Terms

1
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Coumadin therapy requires an INR value of __ times the normative value for a patient with a history of DVT.

1.5

2
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What lifestyle change should be encouraged to improve blood flow to a patient with CAD?

Smoking cessation

3
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True or False: Exercise can change insulin demands in a diabetic patient.

True

4
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To prevent issues in a patient with DMII who is NPO for surgery with no IVF ordered, the best action is to __.

monitor BSG

5
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True or False: Sclerotherapy is an option for treating esophageal varices.

True

6
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If a client receiving PRBC experiences low back pain and difficulty breathing, what should the nurse do first?

Stop the infusion and run NSS.

7
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What is a common side effect to monitor in a patient undergoing a lumbar puncture?

Headache

8
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To assess for a respiratory infection in a patient with chronic lung disease, the nurse should not ask about __.

BLE edema

9
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A characteristic skin finding in clients with lupus is __.

Butterfly rash

10
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Patients on anticoagulants should be educated to shave with __.

an electric razor

11
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True or False: The 6 P's are used to monitor signs and symptoms of DVT.

True

12
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List some common medications used for GERD, Gastritis, and Ulcers.

Antacids, PPI’s, and H2 antagonists

13
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In a client with UC presenting with GI bleed symptoms, the nurse's priority should be __.

Obtaining a full set of vital signs.

14
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What test would be used to monitor long-term management of Type II Diabetes?

HgB A1C

15
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Post-lithotripsy patient education should include __ and straining urine.

increasing water intake

16
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Signs and symptoms of hypovolemic and septic shock include __ and increased HR.

decreased BP

17
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True or False: You should suction a trach on the way in for 15 seconds.

False

18
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A patient with right heart failure would present with the acronym __.

HEAD

19
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Which neurological diseases require an NPO diet with worsening muscle weakness?

Guillain Barre and Myasthenia Gravis

20
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A client with SIADH would expect to follow a __ diet.

high sodium and fluid restriction

21
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What type of meningitis presents with cloudy CSF?

Bacterial meningitis

22
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What type of Hepatitis is contracted from eating contaminated fish or seafood?

Hep A

23
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True or False: PAD ulcers are wet and angry looking, typically on the shin or calf.

False

24
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Patients with AIDS are at an increased risk of infection due to an __ state.

immunocompromised

25
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To prevent asthma attacks, you should __.

avoid triggers

26
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Which medication would best help a client with lung disease during an exacerbation?

Bronchodilator

27
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True or False: Hyperthyroidism is also known as Graves' disease.

True

28
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The signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure can be recalled using the acronym __.

DOCHAP

29
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Which disease affects life-sustaining hormones?

Addison’s disease

30
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To reduce the risk of renal caliculi, a client with a history of hyperparathyroidism should __.

Increase PO/IVF

31
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A client beginning radiation therapy should not be advised to __.

use antimicrobial soaps over the radiation site.

32
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What should be included in education for sleep apnea?

elevating HOB sleeping, losing weight, smoking cessation

33
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What is described as an achy heaviness in affected extremities?

Varicose veins

34
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Patients with cancer receiving chemotherapy are at risk for __.

pancytopenia

35
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What is a side effect of both radiation and chemotherapy that can increase pain and decrease nutritional status?

Stomatitis

36
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A client presenting with flu-like symptoms should receive what types of medication?

Tylenol, IVF, and Motrin

37
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Interpret the following ABG values: pH- 7.56, CO2- 29, HCO3- 26.

Respiratory Alkalosis

38
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True or False: A client undergoing a paracentesis should have a full bladder for better visualization.

False

39
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What medication should a client undergoing heart valve replacement expect to take lifelong?

Anticoagulants

40
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Describe the appearance of arterial ulcers.

Dry, well-approximated, and usually distal on the lower extremity.

41
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If a client treated for DVT experiences SOB, confusion, and lower O2 levels, what should the RN do first?

Call a rapid response.

42
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Clients with HTN, varices, and who take which medication daily?

Stool softener.

43
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True or False: A client experiencing epistaxis should lean their head back.

False

44
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A client diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis should be asked about exposure to __.

Upper respiratory and GI infections.

45
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What is the priority intervention if you hear gurgling outside a client with a trach's room?

Suction the client.

46
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If a client is experiencing a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, which immunoglobulin would you expect?

IgE.

47
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When a client is having a seizure, what should not be done?

Putting in a tongue blade.

48
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True or False: A client with heart failure will experience an increased cardiac output.

False

49
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After a hypophysectomy, a client should be educated on reducing __.

intracranial pressure.

50
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What should a client with neuropathy and cold feet use to warm them?

Thick wool socks.

51
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To monitor the effectiveness of diuretics in a client with heart failure, the best way is to check __.

Daily weight.

52
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True or False: Kaposi Sarcoma is a common opportunistic infection for patients with meningitis.

False.

53
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In late-stage PKD, which electrolyte should be reduced?

Sodium.

54
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What is a common infection found in clients undergoing chemotherapy?

Candidiasis.

55
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A nurse caring for a client receiving radiation should wear a __.

dosimeter.

56
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What would be assumed if a client presents with abnormal ABGs, SOB, and tachycardia?

Metabolic acidosis.

57
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True or False: Clients with ALS will lose both mental and physical capabilities.

False.