[Pharmaceutical Chemistry] - PACOP PINK

D

1. Which of the following is(are) true regarding phase I drug metabolism?

I. Also known as conjugation reaction

II. Includes oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

III. Generally tends to provide a functional group or "handle" to the molecule

a. I, II and III

b. I and II only

c. I only

d. II and III only

e. I and III only

A

2. Which of the following is(are) true regarding phase II drug metabolism?

I. Allows the attachment of small, polar, and ionisable endogenous compounds

II. Allows the termination or attenuation of a biologic activity

III. Serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites

a. I, II and III

b. I and II only

c. I only

d. II and III only

e. I and III only

A

3. Which of the following undergo oxidative reaction?

I. Olefins

II. Alcohols and Aldehydes

III. Aromatic moieties

IV. Nitro and Azo compounds

a. I, II and III only

b. II, III and IV only

c. III only

d. I and II only

e. IV only

D

4. Which of the following is/ are examples of drugs that are extensively metabolized by the first pass effect?

I. Lidocaine

II. Nitroglycerin

III. Morphine

IV. Meperidine

a. III and IV only

b. II and III only

c. I, II, and III only

d. I, II, III and IV

e. I and II only

A

5. Glucuronidation is the most common conjugative pathway in drug metabolism. Which of the following is(are)

responsible for this?

I. Readily available supply of D-glucuronic acid

II. Numerous functional groups that can combine enzymatically with glucuronic acid

III. Utilization of D-glucuronic acid to conjugate steroids, heparin, chondroitin, catecholamines and thyroxine

a. I and II only

b. I and III only

c. I, II, and III

d. III only

e. I only

D

6. Which of the following is/ are factors affecting drug metabolism?

I. Age

II. Economic status

III. Species and strain

IV. Gender

a. I only

b. I, II, III and IV

c. I and III only

d. I, III and IV only

e. I, II and III only

E

7. Which of the following is/ are true regarding methylation?

I. Generally leads to polar or water soluble metabolites

II. Important in the biosynthesis of many endogenous compounds like epinephrine and melatonin

III. Constitutes only a minor pathway for conjugating drugs or xenobiotics

a. I only

b. I, II, and III

c. I and II only

d. I and III only

e. II and III only

E

8. Which of the following is/ are considered slow acetylators?

I. Eskimos

II. Egyptians

III. Filipinos

IV. Mediterranean Jews

a. III only

b. I and II only

c. III and IV only

d. I and III only

e. II and IV only

D

9. Which of the following may induce metabolism of other drugs?

I. Phenytoin

II. Cimetidine

III. Meprobamate

IV. Rifampicin

a. I, II and III only

b. I and IV only

c. I, II, III and IV

d. I, III and IV only

e. I only

B

This term that denotes the selective metabolism of two or more similar functional groups, or two or more similar

atoms that are positioned in different regions of a molecule

a. Stereoisomerism

b. Regioselectivity

c. Selective Toxicity

d. Substrate stereoselectivity

e. Bioselectivity

E

The process involved in the biotransformation of amitryptyline to nortriptyline

a. Ketone reduction

b. Ester hydrolysis

c. Epoxidation

d. Aromatic hydroxylation

e. N-demethylation

C

The biotransformation of chloral hydrate via aldehyde reduction forms

a. Desipramine

b. Mesoridazine

c. Trichloroethanol

d. Sulindac

e. 6-Mercaptopurine

E

What process is involved in the biotransformation of prednisone to prednisolone?

a. S-oxidation

b. Aromatic hydroxylation

c. Sulfoxide reduction

d. O-demethylation

e. Ketone reduction

A

What process is involved in the biotransformation of phenylbutazone to oxybutazone?

a. Aromatic hydroxylation

b. Ketone reduction

c. N-acetylation

d. S-oxidation

e. Ester hydrolysis

E

15. Which of the following is(are) metabolite(s)?

I. 6-Mercaptopurine

II. Oxybutazone

III. Prednisolone

IV. Acetaminophen

a. I and II only

b. III and IV only

c. I, II, and III only

d. II and III only

e. I, II, III and IV

D

16. Which of the following is(are) parent drug/s?

I. Digitoxin

II. Hydrocortisone

III. Primidone

IV. Propranolol

a. I and II only

b. III and IV only

c. I, II, and III only

d. I, III and IV only

e. I, II, III and IV

C

The property of chemicals to destroy one form of life without harming another

a. Stereoisomerism

b. Regioselectivity

c. Selective Toxicity

d. Substrate stereoselectivity

e. Bioselectivity

E

Which of the following may be used to classify chemotherapeutic agents?

I. Chemical type

II. Biologic properties

III. Therapeutic indications

a. I and II only

b. I and III only

c. II and III only

d. III only

e. I, II, and III

D

19. Which of the following is(are) characteristics of an ideal antiseptic?

I. Rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms

II. Retain activity in the presence of body fluids

III. High surface tension

a. I, II, and III

b. I and III only

c. II and III only

d. I and II only

e. I only

B

An agent that prevents infection by the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms when applied to inanimate

objects

a. antiseptic

b. disinfectant

c. antibiotic

d. sanitizer

e. pesticide

C

Generally accepted other names of Alcohol, USP

I. Ethanol

II. Wood alcohol

III. Spiritus vini rectificatus

IV. Wine spirit

a. I and IV only

b. I, II and III only

c. I, III and IV only

d. I and III only

e. I only

A

Ethanol that has been rendered unfit for use in intoxicating beverages by the addition of other substances

a. Denaturated alcohol

b. Wood alcohol

c. Isopropyl alcohol

d. Formaldehyde

e. Glutarol

D

Phenol coefficient is defined as the ration of a disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain

of bacterium. What microorganism is used in determining the phenol coefficient?

a. Bacillus subtilis

b. Enterobacter aerogenes

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. Salmonella typhi

e. Proteus vulgaris

B

A 2% solution of iodine in 50% alcohol with sodium iodide

a. Iodine solution

b. Iodine tincture

c. Lugol's solution

d. Mayer's reagent

e. Wagner's reagent

C

A preparation of 5% iodine in water with potassium iodide

a. Iodine solution

b. Iodine tincture

c. Lugol's solution

d. Mayer's reagent

e. Wagner's reagent

A

A preparation of 2% iodine in water with potassium iodide

a. Iodine solution

b. Iodine tincture

c. Lugol's solution

d. Mayer's reagent

e. Wagner's reagent

C

27. Which of the following is(are) true regarding Povidone-Iodine?

I. A water soluble complex that releases iodine slowly

II. Provide a nontoxic, non-irritating, non-volatile, and non-staining form of iodine

III. Used as an antiseptic for skin application before surgery and injection

a. I and III only

b. I and II only

c. I, II and III

d. III only

e. I only

D

A dye available as vaginal suppositories for the treatment of yeast infection

a. malachite green

b. methylene blue

c. phenolphthalein

d. gentian blue

e. basic fuchsin

B

A dye used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning

a. malachite green

b. methylene blue

c. phenolphthalein

d. gentian blue

e. basic fuchsin

E

A potent antifungal substance with a polyene structure from Streptomyces nodosus

a. nystatin

b. griseofulvin

c. natamycin

d. candicidin

e. amphotericin B

C

The aglycon portion of nystatin consisting of a 38-membered ketone ring with a single tetracene and diene

chromophores isolated from each other by a methylene group, one carboxyl, one keto, and 8 hydroxyl groups.

a. Mykinac

b. Mycostatin

c. Nystatinolide

d. Candeptin

e. Nilstat

A

A polyene antibiotic first isolated in 1951 from a strain of Streptomyces noursei by Hazen and Brown

a. Nystatin

b. Amphotericin B

c. Natamycin

d. Candicidin

e. Griseofulvin

A

33. Which of the following is(are) true regarding Griseofulvin?

I. It is recommended for the systemic treatment of refractory ringworm infections

II. Its bioavailability is notoriously poor

III. It is supplied in "microsize" and "ultramicrosize" forms

a. I, II and III

b. I and II only

c. I and III only

d. II and III only

e. I only

E

A series of synthetic antibacterial agents patterned after nalidixic acid, with an effective antibacterial spectrum

largely confined to gram-negative bacteria

a. substituted imidazoles

b. polyenes

c. biguanides

d. dihydrotriazines

e. quinolones

B

The structure found among the quinolones which is essential for their antibacterial activity

a. 1-ethyl-1, 4-dihydro-7-methyl- 4-oxo-1, 8 naphthyridine-3-carboxylic acid

b. 1,4-dihydro-4-oxo- 3-pyridine carboxylic acid

c. 1-ethyl-1, 4- dihydro-4- oxo[1,3] deoxolo [4,5g] cinnolone- 3 carboxylic acid

d. 1-ethyl -6-fluoro-1,4- dihydro-4-oxo-7-(1-piperazinyl)-3-quinolone carboxylic acid

e. 1-ethyl- 7,5- dihydro-8- oxo- deoxolo cinnolone- 3- carboxylic acid

D

Its congeners represent important alternatives for the treatment of urinary tract infections caused by strains of

Proteus resistant to other agents

a. Norfloxacin

b. Cinoxacin

c. Nitrofurantoin

d. Nalidixic acid

e. Methenamine

E

A substance is classified as an antibiotic if it is a product of metabolism (although it may be duplicated or even

have been anticipated by chemical synthesis)

I. It is synthetic product produced as a structural analogue of a naturally occurring antibiotic

II. It antagonizes the growth or the survival of one or more species of microorganisms

III. It is effective in low concentrations

a. I only

b. IV only

c. II & III

d. I - III

e. I -IV

B

One who led the isolation of streptomycin from Streptomyces griseus:

a. Pasteur and Joubert

b. Waksman

c. Vullemin

d. Florey and Chain

e. Alexander Fleming

B

The antibiotic that binds with Ribosome 30s subunit

a. Chloramphenicol

b. Tetracycline

c. Erythromycin

d. Lincomycins

e. Penicillins

C

40. Benzylpenicillin binds preferentially to:

a. PBPs 1a and 1b

b. PBP 2

c. PBP 3

d. PBPs 4 to 6

e. PBP 6

D

41. Methicillin is chemically named as:

a. 2-ethoxy-1-naphthalpenicillin

b. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin

c. 5-methyl-3-(2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin

d. 2,6- dimethoxylphenylpenicillin

e. 2,6-dimethylpenicillin

A

Amoxicillin is:

a. D-α-amino-p-hydroxybenzyl penicillin

b. α-carboxy-3-thienylpenicillin

c. α-(1- methanesulfonyl-2-oxo-imidazolidino carbonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin

d. D-α-aminobenzylpenicillin

e. 2-ethoxy-1-naphthylpenicillin

A

Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it to contain a fused ring system which is the:

a. β-lactam thiazolidine structure

b. β-lactam penam structure

c. 6-aminopenicillanic acid

d. β-lactam phenylpenicillin ring

e. β-lactam alkylamino ethyl ring

A

Members of the 4-isoxazoyl penicillin family require these substituents for effectiveness against β-lactamaseproducing Staphylococcus aureus.

a. 3-aryl & 5-methyl group

b. 3-acyl & 6-methyl group

c. 3-phenyl & 2-methoxy group

d. 3-phenyl & 2-methyl group

e. 5-aryl & 2-methyl group

B

These are the major antigenic determinants that are formed when penicillins or its rearrangement products in

vivo react with lysine-ɛ-amino groups of proteins resulting to allergic reactions.

a. Penicillanic acid

b. Penicilloyl proteins

c. Penicillanic proteins

d. Penicillanic acids

e. Penams

B

This is prepared by the reaction of ampicillin with acetone

a. unipen

b. hetacillin

c. unasyn

d. methicillin

e. antivert

A

47. Class I β-lactamase inhibitors have hetero atom leaving at position 1. Which of these is(are) Class II inhibitors:

I. Carbapenems

II. Sulbactams

III. Clavulanic Acid

a. I only

b. I and II

c. II and III

d. II only

e. III only

A

Augmentin is a combination of:

I. K salts of Clavulanic acid

II. Amoxicillin

III. Ampicillin

IV. Sulbactams

a. I and II

b. I and III

c. II and III

d. II and IV

e. III and IV

C

Unasyn is a combination of:

I. Amoxicillin

II. Sulbactam Sodium

III. Ampicillin Sodium

IV. Clavulanic acid

a. I and II

b. I and III

c. II and III

d. II and IV

e. III and IV

D

Primaxin is a combination of:

I. Tazocillin

II. Imipenem

III. Piperacillin

IV. Cilastatin

a. I and II

b. I and III

c. II and III

d. II and IV

e. III and IV

C

Imipenem is the most successful of a series of chemically stable derivatives of thienamycin in which the primary

amino group is converted to a non-nucleophilic basic function. Imipenem is also:

a. 5-acetoimidothienamycin

b. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin

c. N-formimidoylthienamycin

d. α-(1-methanesulfonyl-2-oxo-imidazolidino carbonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin

e. β-imidazolylethylamine

E

D-(4-amino-carboxybutyl) is:

a. cephalosporin C

b. synnematin B

c. Cephalosporin N

d. Chloramphenicol B

e. Penicillin N

D

Cephaloporin C contains

a. penicillanic acid

b. thiazolidine ring

c. lactone ring

d. dihydrothiazine ring

e. piperazine ring

A

A parenteral Cephamycin

a. cefoxitin

b. ceftazidime

c. cephalexin

d. cefadroxil

e. cefamandole

B

Zinacef is the first of a series of α-methoximino-acyl-substituted cephalosporin that constitute most of the third

generation agents. Zinacef is:

a. sterile cefotaxime sodium, USP

b. cefuroxime sodium, USP

c. moxalactam disodium, USP

d. sterile ceftriaxone disodium, USP

e. cefepime, USP

C

The factors that contribute to an extremely long serum half-life of sterile ceftriaxone disodium, USP

I. High fraction of protein binding in the plasma

II. Slow urinary excretion

III. It is not metabolized in vivo

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and II

d. I and III

e. III only

A

This increases stability to β-lactamases while increasing activity against G(-) bacteria at the same time in

monobactams;

a. 4-methyl group

b. 3-methoxy group

c. oximinoacyl group

d. 2-aryl group

e. ethylene diamine group

C

The 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used in chemotherapy:

a. amikacin

b. gentamicin

c. streptomycin

d. kanamycin

e. neomycin

C

MOA of aminoglycosides:

I. interferes with cell wall synthesis

II. act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis

III. interferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message

a. I only

b. I and II

c. II and III

d. III only

e. I and III

A

Extrachromosomals which are self-replicative and transferable by conjugation that is responsible for the

transfer of resistance from one bacterium to another.

a. R-factors

b. F-factors

c. S-factors

d. M-factors

e. X-factors

A

Structure Activity Relationship of Aminoglycosides: It is important for characteristic broad spectrum antibacterial

activity and is the primary target for bacterial inactivating enzyes.

a. Ring I

b. Ring II

c. Ring III

d. Deoxystreptamine

e. Ring IV

B

It is known as Streptomycin B

a. Sreptomycin

b. Mannisidostreptomycin

c. Hydroxystreptomycin

d. Humatin

e. Paromycin Sulfate, USP

D

Acid hydrolysis of Streptomycin yields:

I. Streptidine

II. Streptobiosamine

III. Deoxystreptamine

a. I only

b. II and III

c. I and III

d. I and II

e. III only

A

Neomycin is obtained from:

a. S. fradiae

b. S. rimosus

c. S. kanamyceticus

d. Micromonospora purpurea

e. S. viridae

C

The synthesis of the semisynthetic aminoglycoside involves simple acylation of the 1-amino group of the

deoxystreptamine ring of Kanamycin A with L-amino-α-hydroxybutyric acid (L-AHBA)

a. tobramycin sulphate, USP

b. netilmicin sulphate, USP

c. amikacin, USP

d. gentamicin sulphate, USP

e. neomycin, USP

B

A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of an octahydronaphthacene, a hydrocarbon system that comprises

four annelated six-membered rings.

a. macrolides

b. tetracyclines

c. lincomycins

d. polymixins

e. sulfonamides

C

7-chloro-6-demethyltetracycline is:

a. doxycycline

b. chlortetracycline HCl, USP

c. minocycline HCl

d. oxytetracycline, USP

e. demeclocycline, USP

C

Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics:

I. large lactone ring

II. ketone group

III. a glycosidically linked amino sugar

IV. an asymmetric carbon atoms in the acylamidopropanediol chain

a. I only

b. II only

c. I-III

d. I-IV

B

Bacillus subtilis strain that was isolated from debrided tissue of a compound fracture in 7-year old Margaret

Tracy produced this antibiotic.

a. gramicidin, USP

b. bacitracin, USP

c. colistin sulphate, USP

d. polymyxin B sulphate, USP

e. vancomycin

B

The first widely used broad spectrum that was isolated by Ehrlich in 1974 from S.venezuelae

a. Clindamycin

b. Chloramphenicol, USP

c. Vancomycin HCl, USP

d. Novobiocin Sodium, USP

e. Bleomycin Sulfate

C

Erythromycin B differs from Erythromycin A only at carbon 12, at which hydroxyl group is replaced by _____,

which renders it more acid-stable.

a. Bromine

b. Chlorine

c. Hydrogen

d. Oxygen

e. Fluorine

C

These are sulphur containing antibiotics isolated from S. lincolnensis

a. Bacitracin

b. Novobiocin Na, USP

c. Lincomycins

d. Vancomycins

e. Streptomycins

A

7-chloro-7-deoxylincomycin

a. Cleocin

b. Unasyn

c. Unipen

d. Lincocin

e. Ponstan

B

Bacitrain's bactericidal effect through an inhibition of mucopeptide cell wall synthesis is enhanced by:

a. P

b. Zn

c. Cl

d. S

e.F

B

Analogue of podophyllotoxin that is an inhibitor of Topoisomerase II which contains methyl as its R group:

a. Vindoline

b. Etoposide

c. Vincristine

d. Epipodophyllotxin

e. Daunorubicin

D

The complex structures in vinca alkaloids composed of indole containing moiety and an indole containing

moiety:

I. Indoline

II. Vindoline

III. Vindesine

IV. Catharantine

a. I and II

b. I and III

c. II and III

d. II and IV

e. III and IV

B

Is an antineoplastic agent preparation from Escherichia coli containing the enzyme L-asparagine

amidohydrolase

I. Asparaginase

II. Elspar

III. Pipobroman, USP

IV. Platinol

a. I only

b. I and II

c. I and III

d. I and IV

e. III and IV

B

An antineoplastic drug active against rapidly proliferating cells in the synthesis phase during which it prevents

the formation of deoxyribonucleotides by inhibition of ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase.

a. Carboplatin

b. Hydroxyurea

c. Mitoguazone

d. Hycanthone

e. Doxirubicin

D

It is used primarily for treating polycythemia vera

a. Hexamethylamine

b. Asparaginase

c. Tamoxifen

d. Pipobroman

e. Hydroxyurea

B

D-homo-17α-oxaandrosta-1,4-diene-3, 17-dione prepared by microbial transformation of progesterone.

a. Tamoxifen citrate

b. Testolactone, USP

c. Megestrol acetate

d. Leuprolide acetate

e. ethinyl estradiol

C

Interferons are secreted by cells in response to viral infections or other chemical or biologic inducers. The major

classes of interferons are:

I. Alpha

II. Beta

III. Lambda

IV. Gamma

a. I and II

b. II and III

c. I-III

d. III and IV

e. II and IV

C

It is highly purified protein containing 165 amino acids manufactured from a strain of E.coli bearing a genetically

engineered plasmid containing an interferon alfa-2a gene from human leukocytes.

I. RIFN

II. IFLrA

III. Roferon-A

IV. Interon

a. I only

b. III only

c. I-III

d. I-IV

e. II and IV

A

This is absolutely essential for the in vitro carbonic anhydrase inhibitory activity and for the production of diuresis in vivo

a. Sulfamoyl group

b. Neptazane

c. Amino group

d. Imino group

e. Ethacrynic acid

E

Diamox is:

a. Methazolamide, USP

b. Dochlorphenamide, USP

c. Amoxicillin, USP

d. Hydrochlorothiazide, USP

e. Acetazolamide, USP

B

Benzothiadiazine-1, 1-dioxide nucleus is contained in:

a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

b. Thiazide diuretics

c. Loop diuretics

d. Phenoxyacetic acid

e. K-sparing diuretics

B

4-chloro-N-furfuryl-5-sulfamoyl anthranilic acid is:

a. Bumetanide

b. Furosemide

c. Ethacrynic acid

d. Chlorothiazide

e. Hydrochlorothiazide

D

It is the primary compound selected from a host of pteridine analogues and resembles the structure of folic acid and certain dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors.

a. Spironolactone

b. Amiloride HCl

c. Theophylline

d. Triamterene

e. Theophylline (same lang e)

C

It is pyrazinoyl guanidine diuretics that inhibit the electrogenetic entry of 2% to 3% of the filtered load of Na into

the tubule cells.

a. Triamterene

b. Spironolactone

c. Amiloride HCl

d. Aldosterone

e. Aldactone

D

The major adverse effect of Midamor:

a. hypokalemia

b. hyponatremia

c. hypocalcemia

d. hyperkalemia

e. hypermagnesemia

C

β-imidazolylethylamine, an autacoids, is widespread in nature being found in ergot and other plants and in all

organs and tissues of the human body. It's also known as:

I. 1H-imidazole-4-ethenamine

II. Histamine

III. Serotonin

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and II

d. III only

e. I and III

B

The major source of histamine in the body results from the decarboxylation of this amino acid:

a. Tryptophan

b. Histidine

c. Tyrosine

d. Phenylalanine

e. Arginine

B

Drowsiness is a side effect of antihistamines that is most common to the

a. Ethyldiamines

b. Tertiary aminoalkyl ethers

c. Phenothiazines

d. H2-receptor antagonists

e. Cimetidine

E

A propylamine derivative:

a. Diphenhydramine

b. Clemastine

c. Carbinoxamine

d. Doxylamine

e. Brompheniramine

B

Dramamine is

a. Doxylamine Succinate, USP

b. Dymenhydrinate, USP

c. Diphenhydramine HCl, USP

d. Cyclizine HCl, USP

e. Demeclocycline

B

The piperazine, imidazoline, and phenothiazine-type antihistamines contain the following moiety:

a. aminoalkyl ethers

b. ethylene diamine

c. propylamine

d. butyrophenone

e. phenylpropamine

B

Antihistamines resulting from the chlorination of pheniramine in the para position of the phenyl ring that gives a

ten-fold increase in potency with no appreciable changes in toxicity.

a. Brompheniramine

b. Chlorpheniramine

c. Pyrrobutamine Phospahte

d. Promethazine

e. Phenothiazine

B

A sulfone derivative investigated initially to be the most effective drug for the treatment of leprosy and has useful

antimalarial property but was too toxic.

a. 4,4'-diamidodiphenylsulfide

b. 4,4'-diaminodiphenylsulfone

c. 3,4'-diaminediphenylsulfite

d. 3,4'-diamidodiphenylsulfone

e. 1,2'- diaminophenylsulfite

C

What antibiotic caused a major advance in the treatment of tuberculosis?

a. Isoniazid

b. Ethionamide

c. Rifampicin

d. Cycloserine

e. Capreomycin

C

Ethambutol is remarkably stereospecific. Toxicities of its isomers are about equal but their activity vary

considerably. The factors that have pronounced effect on the activity are:

I. Length of the alkylene chain

II. Nature of the branching with the alkyl substituents in the nitrogens

III. Extent of N-alkylation

IV. Pyranolone ring at the C4 of the compound

a. I and III

b. II and IV

c. I, II and III

d. II, III and IV

e. I, II, III and IV

B

Ethionamide is a second line treatment drug of choice for tuberculosis and is used in the treatment of INHresistant tuberculosis or when patient is intolerant to INH and other drugs. What is the structural difference with INH

series?

a. 5-substitution

b. 2-substitution

c. addition of a thiazolidine ring

d. addition of pyranolone ring

e. 1,2,4-substitution