[Pharmaceutical Chemistry] - PACOP PINK

Proverbs 16:3

D) II and III only

• Includes oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

• Generally leads to provide a “functional group” or “handle” to the molecule

1. Which of the following is(are) true regarding phase I drug metabolism?
   I. Also known as conjugation reaction
   II. Includes oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis
   III. Generally tends to provide a functional group or "handle" to the molecule
   a. I, II and III
   b. I and II only
   c. I only
   d. II and III only
   e. I and III only

A) I, II and III

• Allows the attachment of small, polar, and ionisable endogenous compounds

• Allow the termination or attenuation of a biologic activity

• Serves to protect the body againts chemically reactive compound or matabolites

2. Which of the following is(are) true regarding phase II drug metabolism?
   I. Allows the attachment of small, polar, and ionisable endogenous compounds
   II. Allows the termination or attenuation of a biologic activity
   III. Serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites
   a. I, II and III
   b. I and II only
   c. I only
   d. II and III only
   e. I and III only

A) I, II and III only

• Olefins

• Alcohol and Aldehydes

• Aromatic moieties

3. Which of the following undergo oxidative reaction?
   I. Olefins
   II. Alcohols and Aldehydes
   III. Aromatic moieties
   IV. Nitro and Azo compounds
   a. I, II and III only
   b. II, III and IV only
   c. III only
   d. I and II only
   e. IV only

D) I, II, III and IV

• Lidocaine

• Nitroglycerin

• Morphine

• Meperidine

4. Which of the following is/ are examples of drugs that are extensively metabolized by the first pass effect?
   I. Lidocaine
   II. Nitroglycerin
   III. Morphine
   IV. Meperidine
   a. III and IV only
   b. II and III only
   c. I, II, and III only
   d. I, II, III and IV
   e. I and II only

A) I and II only

• Readily available suppl of D-glucoronic acid

• Numerous functional group that can combine enzymatically with glucoronica acid

5. Glucuronidation is the most common conjugative pathway in drug metabolism. Which of the following is(are) responsible for this?
   I. Readily available supply of D-glucuronic acid
   II. Numerous functional groups that can combine enzymatically with glucuronic acid
   III. Utilization of D-glucuronic acid to conjugate steroids, heparin, chondroitin, catecholamines and thyroxine
   a. I and II only
   b. I and III only
   c. I, II, and III
   d. III only
   e. I only

D) I, III and IV only

• Age

• Species and strain

• Gender

6. Which of the following is/ are factors affecting drug metabolism?
   I. Age
   II. Economic status
   III. Species and strain
   IV. Gender
   a. I only
   b. I, II, III and IV
   c. I and III only
   d. I, III and IV only
   e. I, II and III only

E) II and III only

• Important in the biosynthesis of many endogenous compounds like epinephrine and melatonin

• Constitutes only a minor pathway for conjugating drugs or xenobiotics

7. Which of the following is/ are true regarding methylation?
   I. Generally leads to polar or water soluble metabolites
   II. Important in the biosynthesis of many endogenous compounds like epinephrine and melatonin
   III. Constitutes only a minor pathway for conjugating drugs or xenobiotics
   a. I only
   b. I, II, and III
   c. I and II only
   d. I and III only
   e. II and III only

E) II and IV only

• Egyptians

• Mediterranean Jews

8. Which of the following is/ are considered slow acetylators?
   I. Eskimos
   II. Egyptians
   III. Filipinos
   IV. Mediterranean Jews
   a. III only
   b. I and II only
   c. III and IV only
   d. I and III only
   e. II and IV only

D) I, III and IV only

• Phenytoin

• Meprobamate

• Rifampicin

9. Which of the following may induce metabolism of other drugs?
   I. Phenytoin
   II. Cimetidine
   III. Meprobamate
   IV. Rifampicin
   a. I, II and III only
   b. I and IV only
   c. I, II, III and IV
   d. I, III and IV only
   e. I only

B) Regioselectivity

This term that denotes the selective metabolism of two or more similar functional groups, or two or more similar atoms that are positioned in different regions of a molecule
a. Stereoisomerism
b. Regioselectivity
c. Selective Toxicity
d. Substrate stereoselectivity
e. Bioselectivity

E) N-demethylation

The process involved in the biotransformation of amitryptyline to nortriptyline
a. Ketone reduction
b. Ester hydrolysis
c. Epoxidation
d. Aromatic hydroxylation
e. N-demethylation

C) Trichloroethanol

The biotransformation of chloral hydrate via aldehyde reduction forms ______
a. Desipramine
b. Mesoridazine
c. Trichloroethanol
d. Sulindac
e. 6-Mercaptopurine

E) Ketone reduction

What process is involved in the biotransformation of prednisone to prednisolone?
a. S-oxidation
b. Aromatic hydroxylation
c. Sulfoxide reduction
d. O-demethylation
e. Ketone reduction

A) Aromatic hydroxylation

What process is involved in the biotransformation of phenylbutazone to oxybutazone?
a. Aromatic hydroxylation
b. Ketone reduction
c. N-acetylation
d. S-oxidation
e. Ester hydrolysis

E) I, II, III and IV

📌Metabolites include:

• 6-Mercaptopurine

• Oxybutazone

• Prednisolone

• Acetaminophen

15. Which of the following is(are) metabolite(s)?
    I. 6-Mercaptopurine
    II. Oxybutazone
    III. Prednisolone
    IV. Acetaminophen
    a. I and II only
    b. III and IV only
    c. I, II, and III only
    d. II and III only
    e. I, II, III and IV

D) I, III and IV only

📌Parent drugs include:

• Digitoxin

• Primidone

• Propanolol

16. Which of the following is(are) parent drug/s?
    I. Digitoxin
    II. Hydrocortisone
    III. Primidone
    IV. Propranolol
    a. I and II only
    b. III and IV only
    c. I, II, and III only
    d. I, III and IV only
    e. I, II, III and IV

C) Selective Toxicity

The property of chemicals to destroy one form of life without harming another<br>a. Stereoisomerism<br>b. Regioselectivity<br>c. Selective Toxicity<br>d. Substrate stereoselectivity<br>e. Bioselectivity

E) I, II, and III

Which of the following may be used to classify chemotherapeutic agents?<br>I. Chemical type<br>II. Biologic properties<br>III. Therapeutic indications<br>a. I and II only<br>b. I and III only<br>c. II and III only<br>d. III only<br>e. I, II, and III

D) I and II only

• Rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms

• Retain activity in the presence of body fluids

19. Which of the following is(are) characteristics of an ideal antiseptic?
    I. Rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms
    II. Retain activity in the presence of body fluids
    III. High surface tension
    a. I, II, and III
    b. I and III only
    c. II and III only
    d. I and II only
    e. I only

B) disinfectant

An agent that prevents infection by the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms when applied to inanimate objects
a. antiseptic
b. disinfectant
c. antibiotic
d. sanitizer
e. pesticide

C) I, III and IV only

• Ethanol

• Spiritus vini rectificatus

• Wine spirit

📌Wood Alcohol is METHANOL not ETHANOL

Generally accepted other names of Alcohol, USP
I. Ethanol
II. Wood alcohol
III. Spiritus vini rectificatus
IV. Wine spirit
a. I and IV only
b. I, II and III only
c. I, III and IV only
d. I and III only
e. I only

A) Denaturated alcohol

Ethanol that has been rendered unfit for use in intoxicating beverages by the addition of other substances
a. Denaturated alcohol
b. Wood alcohol
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d. Formaldehyde
e. Glutarol

D) Salmonella typhi

Phenol coefficient is defined as the ratio of a disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of bacterium. What microorganism is used in determining the phenol coefficient?
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Salmonella typhi
e. Proteus vulgaris

B) Iodine tincture

A 2% solution of iodine in 50% alcohol with sodium iodide<br>a. Iodine solution<br>b. Iodine tincture<br>c. Lugol's solution<br>d. Mayer's reagent<br>e. Wagner's reagent

C) Lugol's solution

A preparation of 5% iodine in water with potassium iodide
a. Iodine solution
b. Iodine tincture
c. Lugol's solution
d. Mayer's reagent
e. Wagner's reagent

A) Iodine solution

A preparation of 2% iodine in water with potassium iodide
a. Iodine solution
b. Iodine tincture
c. Lugol's solution
d. Mayer's reagent
e. Wagner's reagent

C) I, II and III

• A water soluble complex that releases iodine slowly

• Provide a nontoxic, non-irritating, non-volatile, and non-staining form of iodine

• Used as an antiseptic for skin application before surgery and injection

27. Which of the following is(are) true regarding Povidone-Iodine?
    I. A water soluble complex that releases iodine slowly
    II. Provide a nontoxic, non-irritating, non-volatile, and non-staining form of iodine
    III. Used as an antiseptic for skin application before surgery and injection
    a. I and III only
    b. I and II only
    c. I, II and III
    d. III only
    e. I only

D) gentian blue

A dye available as vaginal suppositories for the treatment of yeast infection
a. malachite green
b. methylene blue
c. phenolphthalein
d. gentian blue
e. basic fuchsin

B) methylene blue

A dye used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning
a. malachite green
b. methylene blue
c. phenolphthalein
d. gentian blue
e. basic fuchsin

E) amphotericin B

A potent antifungal substance with a polyene structure from Streptomyces nodosus
a. nystatin
b. griseofulvin
c. natamycin
d. candicidin
e. amphotericin B

C) Nystatinolide

The aglycone portion of nystatin consisting of a 38-membered ketone ring with a single tetracene and diene chromophores isolated from each other by a methylene group, one carboxyl, one keto, and 8 hydroxyl groups.
a. Mykinac
b. Mycostatin
c. Nystatinolide
d. Candeptin
e. Nilstat

A) Nystatin

A polyene antibiotic first isolated in 1951 from a strain of Streptomyces noursei by Hazen and Brown
a. Nystatin
b. Amphotericin B
c. Natamycin
d. Candicidin
e. Griseofulvin

A) I, II and III

• It is recommended for the systemic treatment of refractory ringworm infections

• Its bioavailability is notoriously poor

• It is supplied in "microsize" and "ultramicrosize" forms

33. Which of the following is(are) true regarding Griseofulvin?
    I. It is recommended for the systemic treatment of refractory ringworm infections
    II. Its bioavailability is notoriously poor
    III. It is supplied in "microsize" and "ultramicrosize" forms
    a. I, II and III
    b. I and II only
    c. I and III only
    d. II and III only
    e. I only

E) quinolones

A series of synthetic antibacterial agents patterned after nalidixic acid, with an effective antibacterial spectrum largely confined to gram-negative bacteria
a. substituted imidazoles
b. polyenes
c. biguanides
d. dihydrotriazines
e. quinolones

B) 1,4-dihydro-4-oxo- 3-pyridine carboxylic acid

The structure found among the quinolones which is essential for their antibacterial activity
a. 1-ethyl-1, 4-dihydro-7-methyl- 4-oxo-1, 8 naphthyridine-3-carboxylic acid
b. 1,4-dihydro-4-oxo- 3-pyridine carboxylic acid
c. 1-ethyl-1, 4- dihydro-4- oxo[1,3] deoxolo [4,5g] cinnolone- 3 carboxylic acid
d. 1-ethyl -6-fluoro-1,4- dihydro-4-oxo-7-(1-piperazinyl)-3-quinolone carboxylic acid
e. 1-ethyl- 7,5- dihydro-8- oxo- deoxolo cinnolone- 3- carboxylic acid

D) Nalidixic acid

Its congeners represent important alternatives for the treatment of urinary tract infections caused by strains of Proteus resistant to other agents
a. Norfloxacin
b. Cinoxacin
c. Nitrofurantoin
d. Nalidixic acid
e. Methenamine

e. I -IV

A substance is classified as an antibiotic if it is a product of metabolism (although it may be duplicated or even have been anticipated by chemical synthesis)

I. It is synthetic product produced as a structural analogue of a naturally occurring antibiotic

II. It antagonizes the growth or the survival of one or more species of microorganisms

III. It is effective in low concentrations
a. I only
b. IV only
c. II & III
d. I - III
e. I -IV

B) Waksman

One who led the isolation of streptomycin from Streptomyces griseus:
a. Pasteur and Joubert
b. Waksman
c. Vullemin
d. Florey and Chain
e. Alexander Fleming

B) Tetracycline

The antibiotic that binds with Ribosome 30s subunit
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Tetracycline
c. Erythromycin
d. Lincomycins
e. Penicillins

C) PBP 3

40. Benzylpenicillin binds preferentially to:
    a. PBPs 1a and 1b
    b. PBP 2
    c. PBP 3
    d. PBPs 4 to 6
    e. PBP 6

D) 2,6- dimethoxylphenylpenicillin

41. Methicillin is chemically named as:
    a. 2-ethoxy-1-naphthalpenicillin
    b. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin
    c. 5-methyl-3-(2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin
    d. 2,6- dimethoxylphenylpenicillin
    e. 2,6-dimethylpenicillin

A) D-α-amino-p-hydroxybenzyl penicillin

Amoxicillin is:
a. D-α-amino-p-hydroxybenzyl penicillin
b. α-carboxy-3-thienylpenicillin
c. α-(1- methanesulfonyl-2-oxo-imidazolidino carbonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin
d. D-α-aminobenzylpenicillin
e. 2-ethoxy-1-naphthylpenicillin

A) β-lactam thiazolidine structure

Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it to contain a fused ring system which is the:
a. β-lactam thiazolidine structure
b. β-lactam penam structure
c. 6-aminopenicillanic acid
d. β-lactam phenylpenicillin ring
e. β-lactam alkylamino ethyl ring

A) 3-aryl & 5-methyl group

Members of the 4-isoxazoyl penicillin family require these substituents for effectiveness against β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus aureus.
a. 3-aryl & 5-methyl group
b. 3-acyl & 6-methyl group
c. 3-phenyl & 2-methoxy group
d. 3-phenyl & 2-methyl group
e. 5-aryl & 2-methyl group

B) Penicilloyl proteins

Summary:
Penicillin + lysine-ɛ-amino groups → Penicilloyl proteins (allergic reaction)

These are the major antigenic determinants that are formed when penicillins or its rearrangement products in vivo react with lysine-ɛ-amino groups of proteins resulting to allergic reactions.
a. Penicillanic acid
b. Penicilloyl proteins
c. Penicillanic proteins
d. Penicillanic acids
e. Penams

B) hetacillin

This is prepared by the reaction of ampicillin with acetone
a. unipen
b. hetacillin
c. unasyn
d. methicillin
e. antivert

A) I only

47. Class I β-lactamase inhibitors have hetero atom leaving at position 1. Which of these is(are) Class II inhibitors:
    I. Carbapenems
    II. Sulbactams
    III. Clavulanic Acid
    a. I only
    b. I and II
    c. II and III
    d. II only
    e. III only

A) I and II

• K salts of Clavulanic acid

• Amoxicillin

Augmentin is a combination of:
I. K salts of Clavulanic acid
II. Amoxicillin
III. Ampicillin
IV. Sulbactams
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. III and IV

C) II and III

• Sulbactam Sodium

• Ampicillin Sodium

Unasyn is a combination of:
I. Amoxicillin
II. Sulbactam Sodium
III. Ampicillin Sodium
IV. Clavulanic acid
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. III and IV

D) II and IV

• Imipenem

• Cilastatin

Primaxin is a combination of:
I. Tazocillin
II. Imipenem
III. Piperacillin
IV. Cilastatin
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. III and IV

C) N-formimidoylthienamycin

Imipenem is the most successful of a series of chemically stable derivatives of thienamycin in which the primary amino group is converted to a non-nucleophilic basic function. Imipenem is also:
a. 5-acetoimidothienamycin
b. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin
c. N-formimidoylthienamycin
d. α-(1-methanesulfonyl-2-oxo-imidazolidino carbonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin
e. β-imidazolylethylamine

E) Penicillin N

D-(4-amino-carboxybutyl) is:<br>a. cephalosporin C<br>b. synnematin B<br>c. Cephalosporin N<br>d. Chloramphenicol B<br>e. Penicillin N

D) dihydrothiazine ring

Cephaloporin C contains:
a. penicillanic acid
b. thiazolidine ring
c. lactone ring
d. dihydrothiazine ring
e. piperazine ring

A) cefoxitin

A parenteral Cephamycin<br>a. cefoxitin<br>b. ceftazidime<br>c. cephalexin<br>d. cefadroxil<br>e. cefamandole

B) cefuroxime sodium, USP

Zinacef is the first of a series of α-methoximino-acyl-substituted cephalosporin that constitute most of the third generation agents. Zinacef is:
a. sterile cefotaxime sodium, USP
b. cefuroxime sodium, USP
c. moxalactam disodium, USP
d. sterile ceftriaxone disodium, USP
e. cefepime, USP

C) I and II

• High fraction of protein binding in the plasma

• Slow urinary excretion

The factors that contribute to an extremely long serum half-life of sterile ceftriaxone disodium, USP
I. High fraction of protein binding in the plasma
II. Slow urinary excretion
III. It is not metabolized in vivo
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I and III
e. III only

A) 4-methyl group

This increases stability to β-lactamases while increasing activity against G(-) bacteria at the same time in monobactams;
a. 4-methyl group
b. 3-methoxy group
c. oximinoacyl group
d. 2-aryl group
e. ethylene diamine group

C) streptomycin

The 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used in chemotherapy:
a. amikacin
b. gentamicin
c. streptomycin
d. kanamycin
e. neomycin

C) II and III

• Act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis

• Iinterferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message

MOA of aminoglycosides:
I. interferes with cell wall synthesis
II. act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis
III. interferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III only
e. I and III

A) R-factors

Extrachromosomals which are self-replicative and transferable by conjugation that is responsible for the transfer of resistance from one bacterium to another.
a. R-factors
b. F-factors
c. S-factors
d. M-factors
e. X-factors

A) Ring I

Structure Activity Relationship of Aminoglycosides: It is important for characteristic broad spectrum antibacterial activity and is the primary target for bacterial inactivating enzyes.<br>a. Ring I<br>b. Ring II<br>c. Ring III<br>d. Deoxystreptamine<br>e. Ring IV

B) Mannisidostreptomycin

It is known as Streptomycin B<br>a. Sreptomycin<br>b. Mannisidostreptomycin<br>c. Hydroxystreptomycin<br>d. Humatin<br>e. Paromycin Sulfate, USP

D) I and II

• Streptidine

• Streptobiosamine

Acid hydrolysis of Streptomycin yields:
I. Streptidine
II. Streptobiosamine
III. Deoxystreptamine
a. I only
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I and II
e. III only

A) S. fradiae

Neomycin is obtained from:<br>a. S. fradiae<br>b. S. rimosus<br>c. S. kanamyceticus<br>d. Micromonospora purpurea<br>e. S. viridae

C) amikacin, USP

The synthesis of the semisynthetic aminoglycoside involves simple acylation of the 1-amino group of the deoxystreptamine ring of Kanamycin A with L-amino-α-hydroxybutyric acid (L-AHBA)<br>a. tobramycin sulphate, USP<br>b. netilmicin sulphate, USP<br>c. amikacin, USP<br>d. gentamicin sulphate, USP<br>e. neomycin, USP

B) tetracyclines

A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of an octahydronaphthacene, a hydrocarbon system that comprises four annelated six-membered rings.
a. macrolides
b. tetracyclines
c. lincomycins
d. polymixins
e. sulfonamides

C) minocycline HCl

7-chloro-6-demethyltetracycline is:<br>a. doxycycline<br>b. chlortetracycline HCl, USP<br>c. minocycline HCl<br>d. oxytetracycline, USP<br>e. demeclocycline, USP

C) I-III

• Large lactone ring

• Glycosidically linked amino sugar

Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics:
I. large lactone ring
II. ketone group
III. a glycosidically linked amino sugar
IV. an asymmetric carbon atoms in the acylamidopropanediol chain
a. I only
b. II only
c. I-III
d. I-IV

B) bacitracin, USP

Bacillus subtilis strain that was isolated from debrided tissue of a compound fracture in 7-year old Margaret Tracy produced this antibiotic.
a. gramicidin, USP
b. bacitracin, USP
c. colistin sulphate, USP
d. polymyxin B sulphate, USP
e. vancomycin

B) Chloramphenicol, USP

The first widely used broad spectrum that was isolated by Ehrlich in 1974 from S.venezuelae
a. Clindamycin
b. Chloramphenicol, USP
c. Vancomycin HCl, USP
d. Novobiocin Sodium, USP
e. Bleomycin Sulfate

C) Hydrogen

Erythromycin B differs from Erythromycin A only at carbon 12, at which hydroxyl group is replaced by _____, which renders it more acid-stable.<br>a. Bromine<br>b. Chlorine<br>c. Hydrogen<br>d. Oxygen<br>e. Fluorine

C) Lincomycins

These are sulphur containing antibiotics isolated from S. lincolnensis<br>a. Bacitracin<br>b. Novobiocin Na, USP<br>c. Lincomycins<br>d. Vancomycins<br>e. Streptomycins

A) Cleocin

7-chloro-7-deoxylincomycin<br>a. Cleocin<br>b. Unasyn<br>c. Unipen<br>d. Lincocin<br>e. Ponstan

B) Zn

Bacitrain's bactericidal effect through an inhibition of mucopeptide cell wall synthesis is enhanced by:<br>a. P<br>b. Zn<br>c. Cl<br>d. S<br>e.F

B) Etoposide

Analogue of podophyllotoxin that is an inhibitor of Topoisomerase II which contains methyl as its R group:<br>a. Vindoline<br>b. Etoposide<br>c. Vincristine<br>d. Epipodophyllotxin<br>e. Daunorubicin

D) II and IV

The complex structures in vinca alkaloids composed of indole containing moiety and an indole containing moiety:<br>I. Indoline<br>II. Vindoline<br>III. Vindesine<br>IV. Catharantine<br>a. I and II<br>b. I and III<br>c. II and III<br>d. II and IV<br>e. III and IV

B) I and II

Is an antineoplastic agent preparation from Escherichia coli containing the enzyme L-asparagine amidohydrolase<br>I. Asparaginase<br>II. Elspar<br>III. Pipobroman, USP<br>IV. Platinol<br>a. I only<br>b. I and II<br>c. I and III<br>d. I and IV<br>e. III and IV

B) Hydroxyurea

An antineoplastic drug active against rapidly proliferating cells in the synthesis phase during which it prevents the formation of deoxyribonucleotides by inhibition of ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase.<br>a. Carboplatin<br>b. Hydroxyurea<br>c. Mitoguazone<br>d. Hycanthone<br>e. Doxirubicin

D) Pipobroman

It is used primarily for treating polycythemia vera<br>a. Hexamethylamine<br>b. Asparaginase<br>c. Tamoxifen<br>d. Pipobroman<br>e. Hydroxyurea

B) Testolactone, USP

D-homo-17α-oxaandrosta-1,4-diene-3, 17-dione prepared by microbial transformation of progesterone.<br>a. Tamoxifen citrate<br>b. Testolactone, USP<br>c. Megestrol acetate<br>d. Leuprolide acetate<br>e. ethinyl estradiol

C) I-III

Interferons are secreted by cells in response to viral infections or other chemical or biologic inducers. The major classes of interferons are:<br>I. Alpha<br>II. Beta<br>III. Lambda<br>IV. Gamma<br>a. I and II<br>b. II and III<br>c. I-III<br>d. III and IV<br>e. II and IV

C) I-III

It is highly purified protein containing 165 amino acids manufactured from a strain of E.coli bearing a genetically engineered plasmid containing an interferon alfa-2a gene from human leukocytes.<br>I. RIFN<br>II. IFLrA<br>III. Roferon-A<br>IV. Interon<br>a. I only<br>b. III only<br>c. I-III<br>d. I-IV<br>e. II and IV

A) Sulfamoyl group

This is absolutely essential for the in vitro carbonic anhydrase inhibitory activity and for the production of diuresis in vivo<br>a. Sulfamoyl group<br>b. Neptazane<br>c. Amino group<br>d. Imino group<br>e. Ethacrynic acid

E) Acetazolamide, USP

Diamox is:<br>a. Methazolamide, USP<br>b. Dochlorphenamide, USP<br>c. Amoxicillin, USP<br>d. Hydrochlorothiazide, USP<br>e. Acetazolamide, USP

B) Thiazide diuretics

Benzothiadiazine-1, 1-dioxide nucleus is contained in:<br>a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors<br>b. Thiazide diuretics<br>c. Loop diuretics<br>d. Phenoxyacetic acid<br>e. K-sparing diuretics

B) Furosemide

4-chloro-N-furfuryl-5-sulfamoyl anthranilic acid is:<br>a. Bumetanide<br>b. Furosemide<br>c. Ethacrynic acid<br>d. Chlorothiazide<br>e. Hydrochlorothiazide

D) Triamterene

It is the primary compound selected from a host of pteridine analogues and resembles the structure of folic acid and certain dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors.<br>a. Spironolactone<br>b. Amiloride HCl<br>c. Theophylline<br>d. Triamterene<br>e. Theophylline (same lang e)

C) Amiloride HCl

It is pyrazinoyl guanidine diuretics that inhibit the electrogenetic entry of 2% to 3% of the filtered load of Na into the tubule cells.<br>a. Triamterene<br>b. Spironolactone<br>c. Amiloride HCl<br>d. Aldosterone<br>e. Aldactone

D) hyperkalemia

The major adverse effect of Midamor:<br>a. hypokalemia<br>b. hyponatremia<br>c. hypocalcemia<br>d. hyperkalemia<br>e. hypermagnesemia

C) I and II

β-imidazolylethylamine, an autacoids, is widespread in nature being found in ergot and other plants and in all organs and tissues of the human body. It's also known as:<br>I. 1H-imidazole-4-ethenamine<br>II. Histamine<br>III. Serotonin<br>a. I only<br>b. II only<br>c. I and II<br>d. III only<br>e. I and III

B) Histidine

The major source of histamine in the body results from the decarboxylation of this amino acid:<br>a. Tryptophan<br>b. Histidine<br>c. Tyrosine<br>d. Phenylalanine<br>e. Arginine

B) Tertiary aminoalkyl ethers

Drowsiness is a side effect of antihistamines that is most common to the<br>a. Ethyldiamines<br>b. Tertiary aminoalkyl ethers<br>c. Phenothiazines<br>d. H2-receptor antagonists<br>e. Cimetidine

E) Brompheniramine

A propylamine derivative:<br>a. Diphenhydramine<br>b. Clemastine<br>c. Carbinoxamine<br>d. Doxylamine<br>e. Brompheniramine

B) Dymenhydrinate, USP

Dramamine is<br>a. Doxylamine Succinate, USP<br>b. Dymenhydrinate, USP<br>c. Diphenhydramine HCl, USP<br>d. Cyclizine HCl, USP<br>e. Demeclocycline

B) ethylene diamine

The piperazine, imidazoline, and phenothiazine-type antihistamines contain the following moiety:<br>a. aminoalkyl ethers<br>b. ethylene diamine<br>c. propylamine<br>d. butyrophenone<br>e. phenylpropamine

B) Chlorpheniramine

Antihistamines resulting from the chlorination of pheniramine in the para position of the phenyl ring that gives a ten-fold increase in potency with no appreciable changes in toxicity.<br>a. Brompheniramine<br>b. Chlorpheniramine<br>c. Pyrrobutamine Phospahte<br>d. Promethazine<br>e. Phenothiazine

B) 4,4'-diaminodiphenylsulfone

A sulfone derivative investigated initially to be the most effective drug for the treatment of leprosy and has useful antimalarial property but was too toxic.<br>a. 4,4'-diamidodiphenylsulfide<br>b. 4,4'-diaminodiphenylsulfone<br>c. 3,4'-diaminediphenylsulfite<br>d. 3,4'-diamidodiphenylsulfone<br>e. 1,2'- diaminophenylsulfite

C) Rifampicin

What antibiotic caused a major advance in the treatment of tuberculosis?<br>a. Isoniazid<br>b. Ethionamide<br>c. Rifampicin<br>d. Cycloserine<br>e. Capreomycin

C) I, II and III

Ethambutol is remarkably stereospecific. Toxicities of its isomers are about equal but their activity vary considerably. The factors that have pronounced effect on the activity are:<br>I. Length of the alkylene chain<br>II. Nature of the branching with the alkyl substituents in the nitrogens<br>III. Extent of N-alkylation<br>IV. Pyranolone ring at the C4 of the compound<br>a. I and III<br>b. II and IV<br>c. I, II and III<br>d. II, III and IV<br>e. I, II, III and IV

B) 2-substitution

Ethionamide is a second line treatment drug of choice for tuberculosis and is used in the treatment of INH-resistant tuberculosis or when patient is intolerant to INH and other drugs. What is the structural difference with INH series?<br>a. 5-substitution<br>b. 2-substitution<br>c. addition of a thiazolidine ring<br>d. addition of pyranolone ring<br>e. 1,2,4-substitution