ACC 403 Chapter 1/2

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Last updated 11:26 PM on 4/16/26
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57 Terms

1
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What is professional skepticism in auditing?

An attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of evidence.

2
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What is the purpose of Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS)?

To identify necessary qualifications and characteristics of auditors and guide the conduct of the audit examination.

3
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What is the objective of an audit?

To obtain reasonable assurance that financial statements are free of material misstatement and to issue a report on the financial statements.

4
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What is the role of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)?

To provide external oversight over audits of public entities and enforce auditing standards.

5
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What is the significance of independence in auditing?

The auditor must conduct the audit in an unbiased, objective manner.

6
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What does the term 'anchoring bias' refer to in the context of auditing?

A cognitive bias where individuals rely too heavily on the first piece of information encountered.

7
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What is the 'availability heuristic' in decision-making?

A mental shortcut that relies on immediate examples that come to mind when evaluating a specific topic.

8
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What is the significance of audit firm systems of quality control?

To ensure that audits are conducted in accordance with professional standards and regulations.

9
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What are the potential consequences of failing to exercise professional skepticism?

Auditors may miss material misstatements or fraud, leading to inaccurate financial reporting.

10
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What is the relationship between GAAS and audit quality?

GAAS provides a framework that helps ensure audits are conducted with quality and integrity.

11
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What is the purpose of PCAOB inspections?

To assess the quality of audits performed by registered public accounting firms.

12
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What is the first step in the auditing process according to GAAS?

Obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including internal controls.

13
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What is the importance of obtaining sufficient appropriate audit evidence?

It supports the auditor's opinion on the financial statements and ensures compliance with auditing standards.

14
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What is a common area of significant risk identified in audits?

Related parties and their transactions.

15
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What is the significance of the audit report?

It communicates the auditor's findings and opinion on the financial statements to stakeholders.

16
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What does the term 'material misstatement' refer to?

An error or omission in financial statements that could influence the economic decisions of users.

17
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What is independence in fact in auditing?

Auditors' mental attitude and impartiality with respect to the client.

18
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What does independence in appearance refer to?

The extent to which others perceive auditors to be independent.

19
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What is due care in auditing?

Performing work at a level that would be exercised by reasonable auditors in similar circumstances.

20
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Define professional skepticism.

A state of mind characterized by appropriate questioning and a critical assessment of evidence.

21
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What is professional judgment in the context of auditing?

The application of relevant training, knowledge, and experience in making informed decisions during the audit engagement.

22
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What is reasonable assurance?

Auditors are not guarantors of the entity's financial statements; risks cannot be eliminated but limited to an acceptably low level.

23
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What does GAAS require in terms of planning and supervision?

A detailed audit plan that lists the procedures auditors need to perform and an understanding of the client's business and industry.

24
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What is materiality in auditing?

Something is material if it is likely to influence a financial statement user's decisions.

25
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What is risk assessment in auditing?

The process of identifying the probability that a material misstatement will occur and not be prevented or detected by the company's controls.

26
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Define inherent risk.

The probability that material errors or frauds will occur absent internal controls.

27
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What is control risk?

The likelihood that internal controls will not prevent or detect material errors or frauds.

28
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What are substantive procedures?

Detailed audit and analytical procedures designed to detect material misstatements in account balances and footnote disclosures.

29
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What factors affect the quality of audit evidence?

Reliability (external > internal, direct > indirect, original > copies) and relevance (related to the assertion of interest).

30
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What is detection risk?

The likelihood that the auditors' substantive procedures will fail to detect a material misstatement that exists.

31
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How can auditors lower detection risk?

By increasing the quality and/or quantity of evidence gathered.

32
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What are the four types of audit opinions that can be issued?

1. Unmodified (or unqualified), 2. Qualified (except for), 3. Adverse, 4. Disclaimer.

33
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What is a system of quality control in audit firms?

Implemented to ensure that work is of high quality and meets professional standards.

34
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What are the components of a system of quality control?

1. Leadership responsibilities, 2. Relevant ethical requirements, 3. Acceptance and continuance, 4. Human resources, 5. Engagement performance, 6. Monitoring.

<p>1. Leadership responsibilities, 2. Relevant ethical requirements, 3. Acceptance and continuance, 4. Human resources, 5. Engagement performance, 6. Monitoring.</p>
35
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How often is an audit firm subject to PCAOB inspection?

The frequency varies, but firms are regularly inspected to ensure compliance with standards.

36
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What types of deficiencies might the PCAOB identify?

Deficiencies in audit areas that could lead to incorrect opinions being issued.

37
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What is the role of engagement planning in auditing?

To establish a framework for the audit process, ensuring all necessary procedures are outlined.

38
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What is the importance of understanding the client's business and industry?

It helps auditors assess risks and tailor their audit approach accordingly.

39
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What is the impact of better controls on control risk?

Better controls lead to lower control risk and less substantive audit work necessary.

40
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What is the primary purpose of an audit?

To enhance the trustworthiness and reliability of company-reported information.

41
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What is business risk?

The risk that an entity will fail to meet its objectives.

42
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What do internal decision makers need for effective business management?

Timely, relevant, and reliable information.

43
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What is information risk?

The probability that the information circulated by a company will be false or misleading.

44
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What is the role of auditors in mitigating information risk?

Auditors enhance the trustworthiness and reliability of company-reported information.

45
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Define assurance in the context of auditing.

The lending of credibility to information.

46
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What is attestation?

A professional service resulting in a report on an assertion about subject matter that is the responsibility of another party.

<p>A professional service resulting in a report on an assertion about subject matter that is the responsibility of another party.</p>
47
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How is auditing defined?

The systematic process of objectively obtaining and evaluating evidence regarding assertions about economic actions and events.

48
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What are assurance services?

Independent professional services that improve the quality of information for decision makers.

49
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Give an example of an assurance service.

Cybersecurity risk assessment and assurance.

50
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What is an attestation engagement?

An engagement where a practitioner examines whether management's assertions about a subject matter can be relied upon.

51
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What must CEOs and CFOs certify under Section 302 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

They have read the financial statements, are not aware of false statements, and believe the statements present an accurate picture of the company's financial condition.

52
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What are the PCAOB assertions?

Existence or Occurrence, Completeness, Valuation or Allocation, Rights and Obligations, Presentation and Disclosure.

53
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What does the existence or occurrence assertion address?

Whether assets or liabilities exist at a given date and whether recorded transactions have occurred.

54
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What does the completeness assertion address?

Whether all transactions and accounts that should be presented in the financial statements are included.

55
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What does the valuation or allocation assertion address?

Whether asset, liability, equity, revenue, and expense components are included at appropriate amounts.

56
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What does the rights and obligations assertion address?

Whether assets are the rights of the entity and liabilities are the obligations of the entity.

57
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What does the presentation and disclosure assertion address?

Whether components of the financial statements are properly classified, described, and disclosed.