OT 504 Week 5 LG 2: Balance and Physical Activity in Older Adulthood Flashcards

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Last updated 6:12 AM on 6/21/26
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132 Terms

1
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What systems are involved in maintaining balance?

Vision, vestibular system, proprioception/kinesthesia, tactile (somatosensory) input, cognition, strength, and flexibility.

2
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What cognitive components contribute to balance?

Coordination, motor planning, processing speed (reaction time), and attention.

3
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What is static balance?

The ability to maintain a stable position while motionless.

4
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What is dynamic balance?

Maintaining stability while the body is moving.

5
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What is reactive balance?

The ability to recover stability after an unexpected disturbance.

6
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What sensory changes can affect balance in older adults

Changes in vision, vestibular function, proprioception, and touch sensation.

7
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What is sarcopenia?

Age-related muscular atrophy and loss of muscle mass.

8
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How can hyperkyphosis affect balance?

It alters posture and center of gravity, increasing fall risk.

9
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How do reaction times change with aging?

They become slower, reducing the ability to respond to balance challenges.

10
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What gait changes commonly occur with aging?

Decreased step length, decreased stride length, slower speed, decreased cadence, and increased double-stance time.

11
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what is cadence?

The number of steps taken per minute while walking.

12
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What is double-stance time?

The portion of gait when both feet are on the ground.

13
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Name common medical conditions that can affect balance.

Dehydration, malnourishment, orthostatic hypotension, BPPV, COPD, CHF, and extrapyramidal dysfunction.

14
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What is orthostatic hypotension?

A drop in blood pressure when changing positions, often causing dizziness and falls.

15
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What does BPPV stand for?

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo.

16
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What causes BPPV?

Small calcium particles (canaliths) become displaced and float in the semicircular canals.

17
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What symptoms are associated with BPPV?

Vertigo, dizziness, and balance problems.and Nystagmus.

18
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What sensation do individuals with BPPV commonly experience?

A spinning sensation of themselves or their surroundings.

19
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what is the epley maneuver?

A treatment for BPPV that involves sequential movements to reposition dislodged canaliths back into their proper location in the inner ear.

20
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when does nystagmus occur in the BPPV?

immediately after changing head or body position

21
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what does COPD stand for?

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

22
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What is COPD?

A progressive lung condition that happens when airflow is blocked.

23
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two types of COPD

are chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

24
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Difference between chronic bronchitis and emphysema?

Chronic bronchitis is characterized by a persistent cough and mucus production due to inflammation of the bronchial tubes, while emphysema involves the destruction of the alveoli, leading to reduced gas exchange and breathlessness.

25
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what is chronic bronchitis?

Chronic bronchitis is a long-term condition marked by a persistent cough, production of mucus, and inflammation of the bronchial tubes, often caused by smoking or exposure to irritants.

26
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what is emphysema?

Emphysema is a progressive lung disease characterized by the destruction of the alveoli, resulting in decreased elastic recoil, difficulty breathing, and inadequate oxygen exchange.

27
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What causes airflow limitation in COPD?

Swelling, irritation, mucus production, and loss of elasticity in airways and air sacs.

28
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What are common symptoms of COPD?

Breathlessness, wheezing, chest tightness, cough, and barrel-shaped chest.

29
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Why does COPD increase fall risk?

Reduced oxygenation and activity tolerance can impair balance and mobility.

30
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what does CHF stand for?

Congestive Heart Failure

31
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What is CHF?

 A long-term condition that happens when heart cannot pump blood well enough to supply the body with what it needs.

32
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What are common symptoms of CHF?

Chest pain, heart palpitations, hypotension, shortness of breath, fatigue, nausea, loss of appetite, swelling, and nocturia.

33
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what is nocturia?

Nocturia is the condition of waking during the night to urinate, which can disrupt sleep and be a symptom of underlying health issues.

34
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why can nocturia occur?

Nocturia can occur due to various factors including age-related changes in bladder capacity, hormonal changes affecting urine production, or underlying health conditions such as CHF, diabetes, or urinary tract infections.

35
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Why can CHF affect balance and mobility?

fatigue, hypotension, and shortness of breath reduce activity tolerance and increase fall risk.

36
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what doe EPD stand for?

Extrapyramidal Dysfunction

37
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What is extrapyramidal dysfunction (EPD)?

Group of movement disorders that affect the involuntary motor system controlling posture, muscle tone, and automatic movements.

38
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What neurological structures are commonly involved in EPD?

The basal ganglia and cerebral cortex

39
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What conditions may cause EPD?

Brain injury, stroke, Parkinson's disease, and Lewy Body Dementia.

40
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What is dystonia?

Continuous muscle spasms and contractions.

41
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What is rigidity?

Increased muscle stiffness and resistance to movement.

42
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What is bradykinesia?

Slowness of movement.

43
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What is tardive dyskinesia?

Involuntary, irregular jerky movements

44
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What are OT goals related to balance and physical activity?

Improve or maintain quality of life, occupational performance, strength, ROM, activity tolerance, and balance.

45
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What occupational areas are commonly addressed?

ADLs, IADLs, and functional mobility.

46
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What does OT aim to prevent?

Declines in ADL/IADL performance, ROM, strength, activity tolerance, cognitive function, and falls.

47
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What three rehabilitation approaches are highlighted in the lecture?

Restore, rehabilitate, and habilitate.

48
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What fall-related question should OTs ask during the occupational profile?

"Have you had any falls in the last 6 months? What happened?"

49
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What mobility-related question should OTs ask?

"Do you have any problems with strength, ROM, balance, walking, or breathing that prevent you from doing what you want or need to do?"

50
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Why ask about future concerns?

To identify prevention opportunities and meaningful goals.

51
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What is one of the best ways to assess physical activity and balance concerns?

Observing the client performing occupations.

52
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What should an OT observe during occupational performance?

Activities that are difficult, easy, require compensation, or affect endurance and balance.

53
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What areas are commonly assessed?

ROM, strength, endurance/activity tolerance, and balance

54
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What does Modified Independent mean?

The client is independent but may use a mobility aid.

55
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What mobility aids might a Modified Independent client use?

Cane, walker, or rollator.

56
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What does Supervision mean?

The client requires cueing for safe movement.

57
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What types of cueing may be used?

Visual, verbal, or tactile cues.

58
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What does Contact Guard Assist mean?

The client requires a gait belt and close guarding for safety.

59
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What do Min Assist, Mod Assist, and Max Assist indicate?

Increasing levels of physical support needed for mobility.

60
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Why is ROM assessed before strength?

To identify pain, rigidity, instability, compensatory movements, and determine if MMT can be safely performed.

61
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What may indicate that ROM testing should stop?

Pain, rigidity, instability, or inability to perform the movement safely.

62
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Why are compensatory movements important to identify?

They may mask impairments and affect function.

63
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What is MMT?

A method used to evaluate muscle strength and function.

64
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What are the types of muscle testing?

Manual resistance, dynamometer testing, and functional testing.

65
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What factors can affect MMT results?

Fatigue, pain, fear, communication, recent sutures, and testing position.

66
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What precautions should be considered before MMT?

Inflammation, pain, healing tissue, environmental factors, and cardiovascular conditions.

67
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What is proximal stability?

Stabilizing a body segment to prevent compensatory movement during testing.

68
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How should resistance be applied during MMT?

Opposite the muscle's pull and gradually increased over 2–3 seconds.

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What is the MMT grading scale?

0–5.

70
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What does Grade 0 indicate?

No muscle contraction.

71
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What does Grade 1 indicate?

Trace, contraction can be felt, when palpated

72
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What does Grade 2 indicate?

poor, person can move though complete range of motion without gravity(gravity eliminated)

73
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What does Grade 3 indicate?

Fair, person can move through complete range of motion against gravity & hold position against gravity

74
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what setting does grade 3 happen in?

most adult day care, assisted living facilities, or rehabilitation centers and PACE

75
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What does Grade 4 indicate?

Good, person can move through complete range of motion against gravity and can hold position against moderate resistance.

76
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What does Grade 5 indicate?

Normal, person can hold body part against strong pressure/resistane

77
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what is important thing to remember from the lecture from the MMT?

Most of the well community dwelling older adults will be greater than 3

78
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What are the three common aerobic assessments discussed in OT practice?

Vital signs, METS, and Borg rating of perceived exertion scale

79
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What are the four vital signs commonly assessed during aerobic activity?

blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and SpO₂.

80
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Why are vital signs monitored during exercise?

To assess cardiovascular and respiratory response to activity and ensure safety.

81
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What does SpO₂ measure?

Peripheral oxygen saturation, or the percentage of oxygen carried by hemoglobin in the blood.

82
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What vital sign reflects how many times the heart beats per minute?

Heart rate.

83
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What vital sign measures the force of blood against arterial walls?

Blood pressure.

84
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What vital sign measures breathing frequency?

Respiratory rate.

85
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What does MET stand for?

Metabolic Equivalent of Task.

86
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What do METs measure?

The energy cost of physical activities.

87
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What does 1 MET represent?

Energy expenditure at rest.

88
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Why are METs useful in rehabilitation?

They help determine the intensity of activities and a client's functional capacity.

89
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How can OTs use METs?

To grade activities, monitor endurance, and develop safe activity programs.

90
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What is the Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale?

scale used to monitor and guide exercise intensity based on how hard a person feels they are working

91
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What does RPE stand for?

Rating of Perceived Exertion.

92
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What is the range of the original Borg Scale?

6–20.

93
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What is the range of the Modified Borg Dyspnoea Scale?

0–10.

94
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What does the Borg Scale measure?

A person's perceived level of physical exertion during activity.

95
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What does the Modified Borg Dyspnoea Scale primarily measure?

Breathlessness (dyspnea).

96
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Which Borg Scale is more commonly used to measure breathlessness?

The Modified Borg Dyspnoea Scale (0–10).

97
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Why is the Borg Scale useful in clinical practice?

It helps clinicians monitor exercise intensity and activity tolerance.

98
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What OT performance area can the Borg Scale help assess?

Activity tolerance/endurance.

99
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When might an OT use the Borg Scale?

During exercise, functional mobility, endurance training, or cardiopulmonary rehabilitation.

100
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A client reports a Borg Dyspnoea rating of 8/10 during activity. What does this indicate?

The client is experiencing a very high level of perceived breathlessness and may need activity modification, rest, or monitoring.