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5th or 6th week
When do the two ventral bands of thickened ectoderm appear in the embryo?
Paired breasts
What structures develop along the ventral ridges of ectoderm in the embryo?
Polymastia
What is the term for the presence of accessory breasts?
Polythelia
What is the term for the presence of accessory nipples?
Less than 1 percent
What is the incidence rate of polymastia or polythelia in infants?
Urinary and cardiovascular
Abnormalities of which two systems may be associated with milkline accessory tissue?
Inverted nipple
What occurs when a pit fails to elevate above skin level during fetal development?
4 percent
What percentage of infants are affected by inverted nipples?
Amastia
What is the term for the complete absence of the breast?
6th fetal week
At what week of development does an arrest in the mammary ridge result in amastia?
Poland s syndrome
Which syndrome consists of amastia, costal cartilage defects, and rib defects?
Brachysyndactyly
What finger abnormality is associated with Poland s syndrome?
Symmastia
What is the rare condition of webbing between the breasts across the midline?
Turner s syndrome
Which syndrome involves ovarian agenesis and is associated with polymastia?
Fleischer s syndrome
Which syndrome involves nipple displacement and bilateral renal hypoplasia?
15 to 20
How many lobes is the human breast typically composed of?
Lobules
What structures compose the individual lobes of the breast?
Cooper s suspensory ligaments
What structures provide support and suspension to the breast tissue?
2nd or 3rd rib
At what rib level does the breast typically begin superiorly?
6th or 7th rib
At what rib level does the breast typically end at the inframammary fold?
Sternum
The breast extends transversely from the lateral border of which bone?
Anterior axillary line
What is the lateral transverse boundary of the breast extension?
Pectoralis major
On which major muscle fascia does the posterior part of the breast rest?
Serratus anterior and external oblique
Besides the pectoralis major, name two other muscles the breast fascia rests upon.
Posterior intercostal arteries
Which arteries provide blood supply to the breast via their lateral branches?
Internal thoracic artery
From which artery do perforating branches arise to supply the breast?
Axillary artery
Besides the internal thoracic and intercostal, which artery provides blood supply to the breast?
Internal thoracic vein
Which vein receives perforating branches for venous drainage of the breast?
Axillary vein
Which major vein receives tributaries for breast drainage?
Level 1
Which axillary lymph node group is located lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle?
Level 2
Which axillary lymph node group is located deep to the pectoralis minor muscle?
Level 3
Which axillary lymph node group is located medial to the pectoralis minor muscle?
Apical
What is another name for the Level 3 axillary lymph nodes?
Estrogen
Which hormone initiates ductal development in the breast?
Progesterone
Which hormone is responsible for the differentiation of epithelium and lobular development?
Prolactin
Along with estrogen and progesterone, which hormone is essential for normal development and function?
Oxytocin
Which hormone is part of the neuroendocrine control of breast function and let down?
GnRH
What hormone from the hypothalamus regulates the release of LH and FSH?
Anterior pituitary
In which gland are the basophilic cells that release LH and FSH located?
Adolescence, pregnancy, lactation, and senescence
What are the four different physiological stages of the breast?
Gynecomastia
What is the term for an enlarged breast in the male?
Neonatal, adolescence, and senescence
What are the three phases of life when gynecomastia usually occurs?
Estrogen
Gynecomastia results from an excess of what hormone in relation to testosterone?
Testicles
When a patient has gynecomastia, which organ besides the breast must be examined to rule out tumors?
True hermaphroditism
What gonadal condition can cause an estrogen excess state leading to gynecomastia?
Leydig cell and Sertoli cell
Name two types of non germinal testicular neoplasms that cause gynecomastia.
Choriocarcinoma
Which germ cell tumor is a known cause of gynecomastia?
Adrenal cortical neoplasms
Name a non testicular tumor type that can cause estrogen excess.
Liver disease
Hepatocellular carcinoma or cirrhosis of which organ causes gynecomastia?
Klinefelter s syndrome
Which XXY syndrome is a major cause of hypogonadism and gynecomastia?
Kallmann syndrome
Which syndrome involves hypogonadism and associated anosmia?
Congenital anorchia
What is the eunuchoid state of androgen deficiency?
Renal failure
Which organ failure is a non gonadal cause of gynecomastia?
Grade 1
Which gynecomastia grade involves small enlargement with no skin excess?
Grade 2a
Which gynecomastia grade involves moderate enlargement with no skin excess?
Grade 2b
Which gynecomastia grade involves moderate enlargement with extra skin?
Grade 3
Which gynecomastia grade involves marked enlargement with significant extra skin?
Inframammary fold
In gynecomastia grading, the nipple position is compared to which anatomical structure?
Breast ptosis
What is the medical term for breast sagging or redundancy?
Bacterial or mycotic
What are the two primary origins of infectious breast disorders?
Staphylococcus aureus
What is the most common bacterial cause of breast infections?
Streptococcus species
Which bacterial species, along with S aureus, is a common culprit for breast abscesses?
Point tenderness, erythema, and hyperthermia
Name three symptoms of a breast abscess.
Ultrasound guided aspiration
What diagnostic and therapeutic procedure uses sound waves to guide a needle into an abscess?
Incision and drainage
What is the operative treatment for a breast abscess?
Zuska s disease
What is the name for recurrent periductal mastitis?
Retroareolar
In Zuska s disease, infections and abscesses are recurrent in which area?
Blastomycosis or sporotrichosis
Name a rare focal mycotic infection of the breast.
Candida albicans
Which fungus causes erythematous, scaly lesions of the inframammary fold?
Hidradenitis suppurativa
What chronic inflammatory condition originates in the accessory areolar glands of Montgomery?
Paget s disease or invasive cancer
Hidradenitis suppurativa can mimic the appearance of which two serious conditions?
Mondor s disease
What is the variant of thrombophlebitis involving the superficial veins of the anterior chest wall?
Lateral thoracic and thoracoepigastric
Which two veins are most frequently involved in Mondor s disease?
ANDI
What is the classification system for aberrations of normal development and involution?
Fibroadenoma
According to the ANDI system, what is a common disorder of the early reproductive years?
Gigantomastia
What is the ANDI disease state for adolescent hypertrophy?
Cyclical mastalgia
What is a common breast disorder during the later reproductive years?
Involution
Which life stage (age 35 to 55) is associated with macrocysts and sclerosing lesions?
Duct ectasia
Which involutional disorder is related to duct dilatation and sclerosis?
Epithelial hyperplasia with atypia
What is the disease state of epithelial turnover in the involution phase?
Nonproliferative
What category of benign disorders includes cysts, calcifications, and fibroadenomas?
Apocrine metaplasia
What histological change is often seen in nonproliferative cysts?
Proliferative without atypia
What category includes sclerosing adenosis and radial scars?
Intraductal papilloma
Which benign lesion may present with nipple discharge?
Atypical proliferative lesions
What category includes atypical lobular and ductal hyperplasia?
No increased risk
What is the relative cancer risk for nonproliferative lesions of the breast?
1 5 to 2 fold
What is the relative cancer risk for florid hyperplasia?
4 fold
What is the relative cancer risk for atypical ductal hyperplasia?
10 fold
What is the relative cancer risk for ductal carcinoma in situ?
Lobular carcinoma in situ
Which in situ carcinoma, along with DCIS, carries a 10 fold relative risk?
Age at menarche
In the Gail model, which menstrual factor affects relative risk?
Age at first live birth
In the Gail model, which obstetric factor affects relative risk?
Number of biopsy specimens
What history of benign breast disease is a variable in the Gail model?
Inspection and palpation
What are the two primary components of a physical breast exam?
Percussion and auscultation
Which two common physical exam techniques are not used for the breast?
Upper inner, lower inner, upper outer, lower outer
Name the four quadrants of the breast.
Lift both arms
What should a patient be asked to do during inspection to check for breast symmetry?
Upright and supine
In which two positions should the patient be during breast palpation?
Axillary lymphadenopathy
What does the presence of enlarged or palpable axillary nodes suggest?
Breast ultrasound
What is the most common imaging study used once a suspicious lesion is identified?