Rad Pharm 3 Practice Exam

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Last updated 5:32 PM on 4/15/26
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77 Terms

1
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What is the GENERIC name of Choletec?

Mebrofenin

2
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What is the BRAND name of Tc-99m Mertiatide?

MAG3

3
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What is the GENERIC name of Pulmotec?

Tc-99m MAA (Macroaggregated Albumin)

4
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What is the GENERIC name of Cardiolite?

Sestamibi

5
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What is the GENERIC name of Myoview?

Tetrofosmin

6
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What is the GENERIC name of Lymphoseek?

Tilmanocept

7
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What is the GENERIC name of DMSA?

Succimer

8
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Tc-99m Sulfur Colloid is best described as:

A generic drug with no specific brand name

9
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Technegas is the brand name for:

Tc-99m Carbon (graphite-based ventilation agent)

10
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DTPA is the abbreviation for Tc-99m:

Pentetate

11
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PYP stands for:

Pyrophosphate

12
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What is the GENERIC name for PYP?

Tc-99m Pryophosphate

13
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Xenon-133 is:

A generic name - supplied as 5% Xe with 95% CO2

14
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Which of the following drugs do you BOIL during kit prep?

Sulfur Colloid, MAG3, Cardiolite (Sestamibi)

15
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The cardiac PET drugs are:

Rb-82 Chloride and N-13 Ammonia

16
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What is the minimum acceptable radiochemical purity (RCP) for all Tc-99m agents on this exam?

>90%

17
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Choletec (Mebrofenin) QC uses which solvent and paper?

20% Saline or distilled water / SA and SG

18
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Lymphoseek (Tilmanocept) QC uses which solvent and paper?

Acetone / Whatman

19
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MAG3 QC is unique because it uses:

Sep-Pak C18 reverse-phase mini-column chromatography with HCl and 50/50 EtOH/H2O

20
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DTPA QC uses which solvents and papers?

0.9% NaCl and Acetone / SG and Whatman (also Sep-Pal C18)

21
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DMSA (Succimer) QC uses which solvent and paper?

Acetone / SG

22
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Pulmotec (MAA) QC uses which solvent and paper?

0.9% Saline / SG

23
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Both Cardiolite (sestamibi) AND Myoview (testrofosmin) QC use which solvent and paper?

Ethyl acetate / saturation paper

24
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PYP (Tc-99m Pyrophosphate) QC uses which solvents and papers?

0.9% NaCl and Acetone / SG and Whatman

25
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What is the UNIQUE QC consideration for MAA particles?

Particles are measured under a microscope - if any single particle is larger than 150 um or if the field is larger than a 3×3 grid, the kit CANNOT be used

26
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DMSA has a shelf life of how long after compounding?

4 hours

27
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Cardiolite (sestamibi) storage - both the cold kit and hot kit are stored at:

room temp

28
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Myoview (tetrofosmin) storage - the cold kit is stored:

In the refrigerator; hot kit at room temp

29
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Pulmotec (MAA) - both cold and hot kits are stored:

In the fridge (2-8 degrees C)

30
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What is the maximum volume (ml) that the MAA vial can hold?

10 ml

31
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Sulfur Colloid kit preparation requires boiling for how long, and what happens if you exceed the boiling time?

6 min ; particles clump into larger particles, altering biodistribution

32
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After boiling Sulfur Colloid for 6 min, the next step is:

remove vial, place in lead shield, then in freezer for 3 min to cool

33
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The valence of Tc-99m in sulfur colloid is:

+7

34
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MAG3 kit preparation requires which two unique steps?

pull back 5ml syringe plunger to vent 2-5ml argon gas and introduce air; then boil kit for 10 min

35
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Why is air (oxygen) deliberately introduced into the MAG3 kit - making it an exception to most Tc-99m kits?

to oxidize excess stannous ion, which might otherwise further reduce the oxidation state of Tc and create impurities

36
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MAG3 is a complex of Tc(V) and :

mercaptoacetyl-triglycine

37
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About what percentage of Tc-99m MAG3 is bound to plasma protein after IV injection?

89-90%

38
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Cardiolite (sestamibi) kit prep requires:

boiling water bath for 15-20 min

39
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Myoview (tetrofosmin) kit prep requires:

do NOT boil; inject at least 10 ml of 0.9% NaCl, then inject Tc-99m. do NOT add Tc-99m before dilution (radiolysis risk)

40
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What happens if Tc-99m is added to the Myoview vial before adequate dilution with saline?

Myoview can double-bind Tc-99m, causing radiolysis that will break the drug apart in under 1 hour

41
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The spleen RBC labeling procedure uses Ultratag. The water bath step is:

49-50 degrees C for 20 min

42
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In the spleen RBC labeling procedure, how much Tc-99m is added to the vial?

22 mCi

43
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MAA (Pulmotec) particles consist of:

Aggregated human albumin; size 10-90 microns; no particle larger than 150 microns

44
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MAA (Pulmotec) should be used within how many hours of compounding per the package insert?

12-18 hours

45
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Technegas particle size is:

5-30 nanometers

46
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Choletec (Mebrofenin) is indicated for imaging which organs?

Liver and gallbladder

47
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Visualization of the hepatic duct and gallbladder occurs within how many minutes post-injection in a healthy patient?

10-15 minutes

48
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What patient preparation is required before a Choletec (HIDA) scan?

Fast for 4 hours to encourage bile excretion and gallbladder visualization

49
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Normal gallbladder ejection fraction (GBEF) is between:

30-70%

50
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Sulfur Colloid is indicated for imaging which of the following?

Liver, spleen, bone marrow, lymphoscintigraphy, and gastric emptying

51
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The Tc-99m application for the spleen study is used to:

Access if splenunculi are present, using heat-denatured RBCs tagged with Ultratag, overlaid with CT

52
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A splenunculus is:

an accessory spleen formed during fetal development, trauma, or incomplete surgical removal

53
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Lymphoseek (Tilmanocept) is indicated for:

Primary sentinel lymph node biopsy or removal in cancer staging

54
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A key advantage of Lymphoseek over Sulfur Colloid for sentinel node mapping is:

Lymphoseek only sees sentinel (primary) nodes, allows delayed imaging up to 15 hours, and has faster transit due to its small 7 nm size

55
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Tc-99m DTPA is indicated for which two major organ systems?

Kidneys (GFR/perfusion) and lungs (ventilation/V-Q scan)

56
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DTPA peak concentration in the kidneys occurs how many min post-injection?

3-4 min

57
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DMSA (Succimer) is used primarily in which patient population for clinical evaluation of kidney function?

Children and premature babies, because nephronogenesis continues until 34-36 weeks of gestation

58
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What percentage of an injected DMSA dose is retained in the renal cortex at 6 hours?

42%

59
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Pulmotec (MAA) is used for which of the following applications?

Evaluating pulmonary perfusion and diagnosing PE; right-to-left shunt quantification; liver mapping for Sirspheres therapy

60
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When performing MAA injecion, which three patient/technique requirements must be followed?

Patient supine; agitate syringe gently before injection; do NOT draw blood back into the syringe (will cause clumping)

61
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MAA is contraindicated or requires reduced particle dose in which conditions?

Severe pulmonary hypertension or hypersensitivity; reduced dose for pregnancy. COPD, emphysema, right-to-left shunt, split lung study, peds

62
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Cardolite (Sestamibi) and Myoview (Tetrofosmin) are both used for:

Testing for CAD and myocardial perfusion imaging

63
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For Cardiolite (sestamibi) dosing, the stress dose is always ____ times the rest dose

3x

64
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PYP is indicated for:

Cardiac imaging- adjunct diagnosis of transthyretin cardiac amyloidosis and acute myocardial infarction; shows characteristic doughnut-hole pattern in amyloid

65
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Tc-99m Pertechnetate is used for cardiac studies to:

Tag RBSs for gated cardiac scan to assess ejection fraction, stroke volume, and cardiac output

66
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Sincalide (CCK) is the drug of choice for evaluating gallbladder ejection fraction (GBEF). It:

stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxes the sphincter of Oddi

67
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The dose of Sincalide (CCK) is:

0.02 mcg/kg IV over 60 min; normal GBEF is >=38%

68
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When is Morphine Sulfate used during a hepatobiliary (Choletec) scan?

When acute cholecystitis is suspected but the gallbladder is not visualized within 30-60 min of injection

69
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Morphine Sulfate works in hepatobiliary imagin by:

Inducing temporary spasm of the sphincter of Oddi, increasing biliary pressure, and facilitating bile flow into the gall bladder if the cystic duct is patent

70
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The dose of Morphine Sulfate for hepatobiliary studies is:

0.04 mg/kg or a flat 2 mg dose IV over 2-3 min

71
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It is critically important NOT to give CCK and Morphine at the same time because:

Morphine seals the sphincter of Oddi while CCK causes the gallbladder to contract - bile would be forced into the sealed common hepatic duct

72
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When CCK (Sincalide) is unavailable, which oral substitutes can be used?

Boost or Ensure- oral fatty meal substitutes containing fats/lipids that stimulate endogenous CCK release

73
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Lasix (Furosemide) is used as a conjunction drug in renal imaging to:

Inhibit sodium reabsorption in the proximal and distal tubules- differentiate mechanical obstruction from functional stasis (dilated pelvis)

74
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ACE inhibitors (Captopril or Enalapril) are used to renal imaging to:

Identify renal artery stenosis as the cause of hypertensions; patients must be off ACE inhibitors AND diuretics for one week before the test

75
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Which of the following is the vasodilator used in pharmacologic cardiac stress testing that is a manufactured variation of adenosine, activating only A2a receptors?

Regadenosine (Lexiscan)

76
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Adenosine (Adenocard) activates which receptors, and why is this a problem?

Both A2a and A2b receptors - A2b activation can cause bronchospasms

77
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The general mechanism of all vasodilators (Adenosine, Persantine, Regadenosine) in cardiac stress testing is:

Cause coronary vasodilation- increase blood flow everywhere EXCEPT where there is a stenosis, creating a perfusion difference