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Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process?
Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as
Microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.
All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT
Hair follicle
Symptoms are
Subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.
A reservoir is
a source of microbial contamination.
Which organism in the Table above most easily causes an infection?(question 6)
Legionella pneumophila
Which kind of disease develops quickly and runs its course quickly?
Acute
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
The ID_50 is
The dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.
Which of the following types of epidemiology applies Koch's postulates to study a disease?
Experimental
Endotoxins are
part of the gram-negative cell wall.
Fomites are
Inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens.
The scientific study of disease is known as
Pathology
HIV infection may not lead to AIDS for many years or decades. HIV/AIDS is best described as
Chronic disease
Most pathogens that gain access through the skin
Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
Which of the following stages of an infectious disease is the most severe?
the decline period
The illness period
Slide 3 - 5 discusses which of the following? There are four correct responses.
- Human microbiome places an important role in being healthy.
- Genome sequencing is important for studying the human microbiome.
- Chemotherapy and immunosuppressive drugs can affect the normal biota.
- Microbes coexist with healthy individuals without causing harm.
Which of the following statements is/are true. Select all True statements. There are four correct responses.
- Microbiota is found on skin, mucous membranes and both male and female genitalia.
- Microbial antagonism helps keep pathogenic microbes from causing diseases.
-Human beings get their endogenous flora from delivery onwards.
On slide 22, which of the following would facilitate a microbes ability to lead to a disease state? There are four correct responses.
- Ability to evade host defenses
- Gain entry into the host or host cell.
- Having the right number or its ability to bind to the host cell.
- Production of toxins such as endotoxins or exotoxins.
Select the incorrect pair
- All microbes have one portal of entry and one portal of exit.
- Endogenous - microbe from another source other than the host
Which of the following is more likely to cause an infection?
Giardiasis - ID_50 = 25 to 100 cysts.
Which of the following can bacteria use to cause damage to host cells? There are four correct responses.
- Action of toxins
- LPS
- Antiphagocytic factors
-Action of enzymes like endoenzymes and exoenzymes
Using table 11.4 (slide 37), complete the following paragraph.
Boils are examples of (1)_____commonly found in areas like the arm pits. They are different from mumps and chickenpox, which are examples of (2)_____ infection. Compared to influenza which is an (3)_______infection. HIV is labeled as a (4)_______infection because it can persist for a long time. Having an infection in one area of the body can spread and become a (5)_________if it is carried to other tissues and organs.
- localized infection, systemic infection, acute infection, chronic infection, focal infection
Select the mismatch. There are five (5) correct choices.
Select 5 correct answer(s)
- Incidence of an infection - overall number of an infection in a population
- morbidity rate - overall death rate
- prevalence of an infection - number of new cases over a time period
- Epidemic - a disease that is commonly found in a region.
- endemic - a disease that is easily spread
Examine slides 51 - 66 and determine which of the following are DISCUSSED AND
ARE TRUE. There are three correct responses.
- Nonliving reservoirs such as soil can have many beneficial microbes.
- Zoonosis are infections transmitted to humans from animals as a result of close associations between humans and animals. Rabbies and West Nile virus are examples.
- Examples of mechanical vectors are flies while example of biological vectors are mosquitoes, ticks and fleas.
Select all of the following pertaining to endotoxins. There are three correct responses.
- Is toxic at high doses
- Produced by Gram negative cells.
- Can lead to a fever.
At which point the infectious agents displays greatest level of toxicity? (question 27)
D
Match the type of carrier with the description given.
Typhoid Mary, for example ______
At the first period of an infection but can still spread the infectious agent.______
HIV infections can last for many years without AIDS._____
Nurses and doctors spreading the infection while at work._____
I feel fine with no signs or symptoms._____
1. Asymptomatic
2. Incubating
3. Convalescent
4. Chronic
5. Passive
4,2,1,5,3
From the choices below, select the characteristics pertaining to endotoxins. Select 3 correct answers
- Gram negatives are the sources.
- Can stimulate fever
- Cannot be denatured by heart.
Which of the following is mismatched?
Tumor - cancer
Which type of white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections?
Eosinophils
NCLEX Prep - Test Bank Question: Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.
JV is a 16-year-old male with cystic fibrosis. He has been admitted several times to your pulmonary inpatient unit with multiple microorganism infections, including Pseudomonas and H. influenza. Because of the thickness of his mucous secretions, his cilia become immobile and unable to clear his lungs of bacteria harboring mucus. He is supposed to perform vigorous airway mucous clearance at home with a vibrating vest and IPV (intrapulmonary percussive ventilation) device. However, he says that it takes hours and he does not always feel sick. Therefore, he often refuses to do his therapies at home.
If JV's cilia are unable to clear his lungs of mucus, what line of defense is being breached?
-first line of defense
Which of the following is not part of out chemical defense system?
All of the choices are correct
(skin's acidic pH and fatty acids, lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat, lysozyme, stomach hydrochloric acid.)
Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all
Vasoactive mediators.
These are activated as a cascade. They are known as blood proteins.
Complement
Our immune system is involved in
All of the above choices are correct. (surveillance of the body, destruction of foreign material, recognition of foreign material, Only recognition of foreign material and destruction of foreign material are correct.)
_______indicate the start of a fever.
Chill
Each of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except
A, B and C are part of out physical barriers. (coughing, unbroken skin, sneezing.)
The first line of defense include all these except
Phagocytic white blood cells.
The first line of defense includes_______
Macrophages and phagocytes
Which of the following is incorrect about complement?
Involves only the classical pathway of activation.
Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?
Lymphocyte
Each of the following are granulocytes except
Lymphocytes.
Which of the following statements is false?
The lymphatic fluid is very similar to blood.
Examine slides 2-19 and select all of the following discussed. There are four correct responses.
Select 4 correct answer(s)
- Skin, mucous, nasal hair, sneezing, coughing and flow of mucous are all part of the physical barrier system.
- Genetic differences as a result of mutations can increase ones susceptibility to certain diseases.
- Chemical defenses include sebaceous secretions and actions of lysozyme.
- Inflammation and phagocytosis are part of the second line of defense
The figure on slide 13 depicts
both chemical and physical defenses
Which of the following is a(n) chemical defense mechanism used by the innate defense? There are four correct responses.
- Bile released by the gall bladder
- Action of enzymes like lysozyme.
- Effects of lactic acid and fatty acid.
- Hydrochloric acid in the stomach
Which of the following is part of the second line of defense? There are four correct responses.
Select 4 correct answers)
- Complements and interferons
- Macrophages and histiocytes
- Fever
- Phagocytes
Examining slide 55 (Table 12.1), which of the following is included as the steps or phagocytosis? There are five correct responses.
-exocytosis of undigested material
-Adhering of microbes by macrophage.
-chemotaxis
-Phagolysosome formation
-Destruction of engulfed microbe by enzymes
Which of the following statements are correct? There are five correct responses. Select 5 correct answer(s)
- PRRs recognize and bind to PAMPS.
-The lymphatic system is involved in host defenses.
-White blood cells differentiate host cells from foreign materials.
-Lacteals, appendix and Peyer's patches are part of GALT
-T cells mature in the thymus
After reading slides 25 - 29, which of the following is (are) mentioned? There are four correct responses.
-Surveillance of the body and recognition of foreign material are the most important functions of the immune system.
-WBCs must be able to recognize body cells and macromolecules are self or nonself in order to ensure proper functioning of the immune system.
-PAMPS binding to PRRs are part of the second line of defense.
-PPRs are found on host cells and used to recognize microbes.
Read slides 46 - 58 and determine which of the following is (are) true.
-Four major categories or components of the second line of defense are phagocytosis, inflammation, fever, and antimicrobial proteins.
- Example of histocytes are alveolar macrophages, Knupffer cells, dendritic cells and macrophages
- Neutrophils are phagocytes and can indicate bacterial infections.
Select the correct word pairs. There are three correct responses.
-Pyogenic - cans lead to pus formation.
-Diapedesis - migration of WBCs out of blood vessels.
-Pyrogens - can lead to increase in body temperature.
The lymphatic system is part of
innate defense system particularly involved in the second line of defense.
The specificity of the immune response is dependent on
lymphocytes
Which class of antibody is present in body fluids such as saliva, tears, breast milk, colostrum, and mucosal secretions?
IgA
Cytotoxic T cells (T, cells) possess the
CD8* and bind only to MHC class I.
Which of the following is(are) types of antigens?
A, B and C are types of antigens (Lipoproteins, proteins, LPS)
Which of the following definition is incorrectly matched?
Alloantigens - antigens found on all members of a population
A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is an
Antigen
Which of the following is mismatched?
Diapedesis - binding of white blood cells to capillary endothelium.
The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called an
Epitope.
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the
Variable region.
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
All of the choices are correct (function in recognition of self molecules, are the result of genetic expression, receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system, aid in cellular development.)
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed
hapten.
What type of molecules present peptide antigens derived from pathogen proteins found in the cytoplasm of nonphagocytic cells?
MHC class I
Which of the following is the most plentiful circulating antibody in the serum?
IgG
What type of immunity results from recovery from an infection acquired from an infectious agent.
Naturally acquired active immunity
What type of immunity results from vacination?
Artificially acquired active immunity
Which host cells express MHC II proteins?
Antigen-presenting cells
Which is the major secretory antibody?
IgA
Which is an example of acquisition of natural passive immunity?
When a fetus is protected from disease by its mother's antibodies
Enhanced phagocytosis of antibody-sensitized cells is known as
Opsonization.
Which of the following pertains to antigens? There are three correct responses.
-They can be proteins on cells or viruses.
-An antigen may have more than one epitope.
-Antigens stimulate production of specific antibodies.
Which of the following is(are) true concerning markers and receptors? There are four correct responses.
- Both B cells and T cells have specific markers.
- B and T cell receptors can accept antigens when they are presented to them.
- All human cells have markers on their surfaces used for communicating with other cells or molecules.
- MHC Class I markers are found on all cells with nucleus.
On slide 23 or Table 13.1, which of the following are true? There are four correct responses.
- B cells mature in the bone marrow while T cells mature in the Thymus.
- The number of T cells in circulating blood is higher than B cells.
- Both B cells and T cells can be found in lymphatic organs.
Based on this figure which of the following are true? There are four correct responses.
-The antibody titer of IgG remained at a higher level after the secondary exposure.
-The primary response would happen after someone is vaccinated against a particle pathogen.
-The secondary response is faster than the primary response.
-The first antibody produced after the second exposure is IgM
Which of the following is a mechanism used by antibodies when defending the body?
A, B and C can all be used (Binding and causing pathogens to agglutinate, Can lead to lysing and destruction of cells, Enhancing phagocytosis of pathogens.)
This antibody can bind to ten (10) antigens at once.
IgM
People who came down with COVID-19 are likely to be protected from future COVID-19 infection. This is an example of
Naturally active immunity
Which of the following pertains to Helper T cells?
A, B and C are correct. (They are surrounded by CD3 receptors, They have CD4 receptors, The must be presented an antigen on MHC molecules in order to be activated.)
Which of the following is/are correct? There are three correct responses. There are three correct responses.
Select 3 correct answers)
-Activated cells lead to inflammation or destruction of infected host cells.
-Activation of T cells require binding to antigens presented by APCs.
-T cell activation can lead to activation of B cells to produce antibodies.
Question 29 (Mandatory) (2 points) Saved
If you were to compare and contrast haptens and antigens, which TWO statements would you include? Remember to compare and contrast is to give similarities and also differences. SELECT ONLY TWO STATEMENTS THAT COMPARE AND CONTRAST THESE TWO MOLECULES. THIS IS AN ALL NOTHING RESPONSE. YOU MUST SELECT THE CORRECT TWO STATEMENTS TO GET POINTS.
Select 2 correct answers)
- Haptens are small molecules.
- Haptens require a carrier molecule while antigens do not when stimulating antibody production.
Which word-statement pair is correct?
Superantigens - T-cells release lots of chemicals in response to toxins
A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to
Type IV hypersensitivity.
Which of the following is NOT considered a type I hypersensitivity?
Transplant rejections
Hypersensitivity is due to
An altered immune response.
Which of the following is not involved in Type I Reactions
All of the above are involved(Histamine, Leukotrienes, Prostaglandins)
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from
An Rh mother with an Rh* fetus.
A hypersensitivity reaction occurs
After a initial exposure to an allergen
Which of the following bind to the constant region of IgE?
Basophil and mast cells
Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of
A bone marrow transplant
An individual receiving tissue from a nonhuman is an example of
Xenotransplantation
Autoimmunity diseases are due to
Loss of self tolerance
The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are
Found in basophils and mast cells.
Looking at table 14.1, which of the following are TRUE? There are three correct responses.
Select 3 correct answers)
- Both IgG and IgM are involved in Type Il hypersensitivity reactions.
- Type Ill involves IgG complexes and basement membranes of organs.
- T-cell mediated response is the same as delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
Select the CORRECT pairs. There are four correct pairs.
Select 4 correct answer(s)
- Primary immune deficiencies - presents at birth
- RhoGAM - given to mothers who are Rh-
- Graft versus host disease - graft attacks host tissues
- Atopy - allergic reactions like asthma
Which of the following statements pertaining to Type I hypersensitivity, slides 10 - 28, is CORRECT? There are four correct responses.
Select 4 correct answer(s)
- Hygiene hypothesis and lack of breastfeeding may contribute to the occurrence of Type I reactions.
- Proteins are more likely to cause an allergic reaction than carbohydrates, fats and nucleic acids.
- Asthma and anaphylaxis are examples type | hypersensitivity.
- Anaphylaxis is as a hypersensitivity reaction which result of lots of chemicals released in the tissues and blood
Which of the following pertains to Type III hypersensitivity reactions? (Slides 35 -41). There are four correct responses.
Select 4 correct answer(s)
-This type of reaction involves IgG or IgM or IgA.
-Requires an initial exposure before any antigen-antibody complexes are formed.
-Complements and antigen-antibody complexes are depositied on the basement membrane of the tissue endothelial cells.
-This reaction involves immune complexes formed by antibodies and antigens.
Which of the following statements is/are false?
Aids and chemotherapeutic drugs are examples of primary immunodeficiencies.