PHARM FINAL

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Last updated 2:09 AM on 5/2/26
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222 Terms

1
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what is bioavailability?

Portion of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation and is available to act

on body cells

2
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which route of medication has the slowest bioavailability and why?

PO, due to the first-pass effect of the liver

3
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which route of medication has the fastest bioavailability?

IV meds = 100% bioavailability

4
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what is the intrathecal route?

directly through the CSF/spinal space

5
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what is pharmacokinetics?

what the body does to the drug

6
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what affects pharmacokinetics?

form of the drug; route given; health of the body/organ function; pH; action of enzymes; presence of food,alcohol other medications; circulation; metabolic rate

7
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what two major organs are part of the pharmacokinetic processes?

liver and kidneys

8
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what is the livers functions in metabolism?

LFTs, Anorexia, n/v, jaundice, decreased function = increased toxicity s/s, role of ETOH (primary metabolized in liver)

9
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what is the kidneys functions in excretion?

BUN/CR, decreased function = increased toxicity s/s

10
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what is first pass effect?

when a drug travels to the liver first to be metabolized before becoming active in the body, drug loses its effectiveness, includes degradation of the drug by the liver

11
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what is a teratogenic effect?

medication effect results in a birth defect/deformity, usually caused by medications from pregnancy category D or X

12
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what is an agonist?

turns on and promotes receptors

13
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what is an antagonist?

turns off and blocks receptors

14
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what are controlled substances (definition)?

medications regulated by the FDA due to their abuse potential

15
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how does the system of scheduling work for controlled substances?

lower the schedule/number, the higher the risk for sedation, abuse, respiratory depression and addiction

16
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what can you not combine with calcium channel medications?

grapefruit juice

17
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what can you not combine with warfarin?

grapefruit juice & vit K foods

18
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what can you not combine with MAOIs?

tyramine foods

19
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what can you not combine with tetracycline?

dairy products

20
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what is a photosensitivity reaction and examples of meds that can cause it?

drug-sun reaction, causing an exaggerated sunburn (fluoroquinolones, phenothiazines, tetracycline/doxycycline, sulfonamides, sulfonylureas, accutane)

21
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what should you teach patients about when taking drugs that cause a photosensitivity reaction?

avoiding sun between 10 am – 4 pm and use protective clothing and sunscreen > 30 SPF

22
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1 teaspoon = ? mL

5

23
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1 tablespoon = ? mL

15

24
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1 oz = ? mcg

1000

25
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1 g = ? mg

1000

26
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WBC levels

4,000 - 10,000/mm3

27
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RBC levels

4.2 - 5.9 million/mm3

28
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hemoglobin levels

12 - 18 g/dL

29
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hematocrit levels

37 - 54%

30
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platelet levels

150,000 - 450,000/mm3

31
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BUN levels

6 - 20 mg/dL

32
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creatinine levels

0.6 - 1.3 mg/dL

33
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potassium levels

3.5 - 5 mEq/L

34
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magnesium levels

1.5 - 2.5 mg/dL

35
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what is an autoimmune disease?

disease produced when body “attacks” its own cells, thinking that the cells are foreign

36
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what are examples of autoimmune diseases?

graves disease, lupus, MG, MS, RA, type 1 diabetes

37
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why are immunizations given?

provide active immunity by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies

38
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what are side effects and normal reactions to immunizations?

warmth, redness, and inflammation at the site of injection, as well as flu-like symptoms; these effects do not preclude the patient from getting further doses

39
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who should not receive immunizations?

have fever, are ill, are immunocompromised, are taking steroids, and/or are pregnant may not be able to receive them, especially “live” ones

40
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what is a famous side effect of vincristine (oncovin)?

peripheral neuropathy (numbness, tingling, pain)

41
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what is a famous side effect of cyclophosphamide (cytoxan)?

hemorrhagic cystitis (hematuria, dysuria)

42
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what is a famous side effect of doxorubicin (adriamycin)?

cardiomyopathy (tachycardia, EKG changes, CHF)

43
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what is a famous side effect of busulfan (myleran)?

pulmonary toxicity (fever, cough, dyspnea)

44
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what does leucovorin (wellcovorin) do?

rescue med for chemo, an active form of folic acid that rescues normal cells from the adverse effects of methotrexate

45
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what does mesna (mesnex) do?

rescue med for chemo, reduces the incidence of hemorrhagic cystitis with cyclophosphamide (cytoxan)

46
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what are common side effects for steriods?

hyperglycemia, gi upset and bleeding, weight gain from fluid retention, mood swings, hirsutism, delayed wound healing

47
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what do monoclonal antibodies (DMARDs/ MABs) cause?

immunosuppression

48
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what does azathioprine (imuran) cause?

bone marrow supression

49
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is methotrexate safe in pregnancy?

no

50
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what is a low white count called?

leukopenia

51
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what precautions and why for leukopenia?

neutropenic precautions due to risk of infection

52
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what is low red count called?

anemia

53
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what does anemia cause and what to do for it?

fatigue, pallor, decreased activity tolerance (needs rest periods)

54
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what is low platelet count called?

thrombocytopenia

55
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what does thrombocytopenia cause and what risks?

bruising, risk for bleeding (fall prevention)

56
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what risks does epoetin (epogen) have?

hypertension and CV related events

57
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what does a culture and sensitivity tell us?

allows us to avoid always having to use broad spectrum ABs, and thus, helps prevent future resistance

58
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how do you infuse vancomycin (vancocin) IV and what to use?

use a pump and infuse it slowly to avoid hypotension (red man/red neck syndrome)

59
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when do you draw a peak level in vanco?

30 min after drug infusion has finished

60
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when do you draw a trough in vanco?

30 min before next dose is due

61
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what kind of damage does fluoroquinolones cause?

cartilage/ tendon damage

62
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are fluoroquinolones the first choice for uncomplicated UTIs and why?

NO due to damage to cartilage and tendons

63
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what should a patient not take with tetracycline, when can they have this?

not take this with dairy, iron, or antacids; we make sure to separate them by two hours

64
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what is the first-line drug to treat TB?

rifampin

65
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what damage can rifampin cause?

liver damage, monitor LFTs

66
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what does rifampin do to bodily fluids?

discolors them red-orange tint

67
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what must you monitor with isoniazid (INH)?

liver and LFTs

68
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what can acyclovir (zovirax) cause?

renal failure, seizures, stevens johnson syndrome

69
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what to monitor when giving acyclovir (zovirax)?

kidney function tests

70
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71
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with anthelmintics, who is treatment recommended for?

whole household and close contacts

72
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what should a patient avoid who’s taking metronidazole (flagyl)?

alcohol

73
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what must you monitor in indinavir (crixivan)?

LFTs

74
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when should someone take HIV meds?

consistently same time every day to decrease resistance

75
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what is isotrentinoin (accutane, claravis) used for?

vitamin A drug used to treat severe nodular acne resistant to other treatments

76
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how long does isotrentinoin (accutane, claravis) take to see effects?

8 - 12 weeks

77
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what may isotrentinoin (accutane, claravis) cause?

suicidal ideation, monitor for depression

78
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what are permethrins used for?

treat scabies and lice

79
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what are common permethrins treatments?

elimite 5%

80
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when are mydriatics contrindicated?

glaucoma because pupil dilation increases pressure in the eye

81
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how should one make sure meds stay in the eye when administering glaucoma meds?

put pressure on inner canthus

82
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what needs to be done when administering eye drops?

compress the nasolacrimal duct at the inner canthus for 60 seconds to keep the drops in the eye (prevent systemic absorption)

83
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what happens to HR during hypocalcemia?

bradycardia

84
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what does one need to do when administering alendronate (fosamax)?

remain upright for 30 min

85
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86
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what do SERMs increase the risk for?

DVT

87
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are SERMs pregnancy category X meds?

yes

88
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what with ibuprofen helps protect the stomach?

misoprostol (cytotec) may be taken concurrently to protect stomach

89
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what is the toxic side effect (and what to watch for) when taking salicylates?

salicylism = dizziness, ringing in ears, decreased hearing, NVD

90
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what to monitor for when taking acetaminophen (tylenol)?

s/sx of liver dysfunction (anorexia, nausea, vomiting, jaundice, and elevated liver enz) due to how its hard on the liver

91
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what should patient avoid when taking acetaminophen (tylenol)?

alcohol

92
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should those taking percocet take acetaminophen (tylenol)?

no, acetaminophen (tylenol) is the “cet” in percocet

93
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how does colchicine (a gout med) treat an acute attack or be a low dose prophylaxis?

reducing inflammation

94
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how is fibromyalgia typically treated?

mood medications, such as SSNRIs like duloxetine (cymbalta)

95
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what are common adverse effects in ACE inhibitors?

COUGH (it is not dangerous but may be annoying to patient) and hyperkalemia

96
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what to monitor for when taking ace inhibitors?

K levels

97
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what can beta blockers cause?

difficulty breathing, bronchoconstriction, decreased exercise perfromance

98
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when are beta blockers contraindictated?

in patients with existing lung disease (asthma and COPD)

99
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what is a major adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)?

fluid and electrolyte loss

100
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what are side effects of furosemide (lasix)?

tinnitus, photosensitivity, electrolyte depletion, hyponatremia and hypokalemia