Sterile Compounding Practice Test

1. USP/NF 797 requires that air sampling for high-risk level areas be performed at least?

Weekly

2. How often must work surfaces in the ISO Class 7 & 8 buffer/clean rooms be cleaned?

At least daily

3. Which of the following pharmacy areas should not contain sinks or floor drains according to USP/NF 797?

Clean room

4. The buffer/clean rooms should provide which of the following environments according to USP/NF 797?

ISO Class 7

5. Which of the following is NOT a compounding example of a Low-Risk level Sterile Preparation?

Measuring or mixing manually four manufactured products to prepare a TPN

6. Which of the following is a compounding example of a High-Risk Sterile Preparation?

Sterile ingredients are measured and mixed in non-sterile devices before sterilization is performed. & Dissolving nonsterile bulk drug and nutrient powders to make solutions which will be terminally sterilized. (A and B)

7. How often must High-Risk level media fill testing be conducted by compounding personnel?

At least semiannually

8. Which of the following components of the syringe must remain sterile?

Tip and inner core of plunger

9. Which gauge of needle would be used to draw up a thick substance like albumin?

14 gauge

10. Which of the following components of the Intravenous Administration Set is used to calculate the rate at which the solution is being infused?

Drip chamber

11. The cover protecting the Intravenous Administration Set spike should not be removed outside of the hood prior to inserting it into the IV bag administration set port because it must remain sterile at all times. True or False?

True

12. When preparing a TPN solution containing both phosphate and calcium type additives, ______ should be added first, then squeeze and agitate the additive port, flush by adding other drugs in between and then add ______ last. Fill in the blanks.

Calcium, phosphate

13. There are various sizes of bacteria but the average size of the bacteria is ______?

1 micron

14. Which of the following bacteria are so light in weight that they can stay suspended in air and be carried by air currents?

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

15. Alcohols have excellent in vitro germicidal activity against?

Gram-positive and Gram-negative vegetative bacteria, multi-drug resistant pathogens, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis

16. List the steps of gowning and gloving garb in the correct order:

Shoe covers, Head and/or Facial Hair Covers, Face Mask, Non-shedding Gown, Sterile gloves

17. The USP/NF 797 states that when carts are being used they can NOT cross over clean zones unless they are cleaned and sanitized before returning to the clean room. True or False?

True

18. If the blower on a laminar airflow hood or barrier isolator is turned off then only TWO persons can enter the buffer area for the purposes of turning on the blower and of sanitizing the work surface for a minimum of 30 minutes. True or False?

False

19. USP/NF 797 requires that all surfaces of the direct compounding environment should be first cleaned with ______ to remove any water soluble residues, then immediately cleaned after the same surface is sanitized with ______ and wiped clean with a non-shedding wipe. Fill in the blanks.

Water for irrigation, Sterile 70% Isopropyl Alcohol

20. In which laminar airflow hood is the HEPA filter located at the back of the hood facing the preparer?

Horizontal airflow

21. In which Class of Biological Safety cabinet is the entire cabinet under negative pressure where operations are performed through attached gloves and the cabinet is entirely enclosed with gas tight construction?

Class III

22. In which type of Biological Safety cabinet is air not recirculated; total exhaust?

Type B2

23. When working in a horizontal laminar airflow hood, all manipulations should be performed at least ______ inches within the hood to prevent contamination of mixed air from the room?

6 inches

24. When carrying out manipulation inside the vertical laminar airflow hood, all manipulations should be carried out at least ______ or more inches above the work surface area, because of where the HEPA filter is located.

3 inches

25. When using a containment barrier isolator to prepare cytotoxic or hazardous drugs, it should be under ______ pressure.

Negative

26. Which of the following drugs are used to treat cancer by substituting in or blocking the use of essential nutrients and enzymes?

Antimetabolites

27. Which of the following drugs are considered the first anticancer drugs and work by binding to human DNA cells to stop their duplicating?

Alkylating Agents

28. Although Vinblastine and Vincristine can both be used to treat solid tumors, lymphomas, and Hodgkins disease, only one of these drugs can be used to treat leukemia. Which drug is it?

Vincristine (Oncovin)

29. Which of the following cancer drugs is used to treat testicular cancer?

Ifosfamide, Etoposide, and Dactinomycin

30. Which of the following cancer drugs is used to treat head, neck, and lung cancer?

Mitomycin and Methotrexate

31. Cytarabine affects cells in which stage(s) of the cell cycle?

S Phase

32. Bleomycin affects cells in which stage(s) of the cell cycle?

G2 phase, M phase

33. Floxuridine affects cells in which stage(s) of the cell cycle?

G1 phase, S phase

34. Vinblastine affects cells in which stage(s) of the cell cycle?

M phase

35. Which of the following cytotoxic agents is considered a vascular irritant and not a vesicant?

Mitoxantrone HCI

36. OSHA recommends cleaning ______ time(s) using a detergent solution followed by water when cleaning up a small hazardous drug spill:

3 times

37. Which of the following cytotoxic drugs must be filtered?

Alemtuzumab

38. Which of the following solutions should Filgrastim (Neupogen) be mixed in?

D5W

39. Which of the following cytotoxic agents sould be mixed in a glass container?

Docetaxel

40. Which of the following cytotoxic agents should be diluted with NaCl instead of D5W?

Mecholethamine, Mitomycin, and Cladridine

41. The USP/797 requires daily monitoring and documentation of refrigerators to ensure that the temperature remains between ______ degrees Celsius?

2-8

42. The USP defines Room Temperature to be ______ degrees Celsius?

20-25

43. The USP/797 requires that any compounded sterile preparation which is exposed to temperatures exceeding 40 degrees Celsius for more than four hours should be discarded unless appropriate documentation or direct assay can confirm the preparation is stable. True or false?

True

44. The USP 797 requires that labeling for IV preparations which are shipped off-site contain which of the following?

Clearly readable beyond use dates, storage instructions, and instructions for disposal of out-of-date units

45. Which of the following IV Admixtures does NOT require Filter tubing when dispensing?

Sodium Nitroprusside

46. Which of the following IV Admixtures should NOT be refrigerated when dispensing?

Metronidazole, Dopamine, and Acyclovir

47. Which of the following IV Admixtures should be mixed in glass containers when dispensing?

HCl, Nitroglycerin, and Amiodarone if infusion > 2 hrs

48. Which of the following injectables MUST be stored in the refrigerator?

Amphoteracin B, and Filgrastim

49. Which of the following injectables should NOT be stored in the refrigerator?

Vecuronium Bromide, Ganciclovir powder, and Polymixin B Sulfate

50. The USP 797 divides contamination into 4 major categories. True or False?

False

51. Which of the following would work for the sterilization AND depyrogenation process?

Temperature 230 degrees Celsius for 60-90 minutes.

52. The Texas State Board of Pharmacy does NOT require which of he following on the "Master Formulation Worksheet" for batch prepared sterile preparations:

The pharmacist and pharm. tech names and signatures

53. Which of the following is NOT required on the label of a sterile pharmaceutical product by the Texas State Board of Pharmacy?

Patient birthdate

54. Which of the following is NOT required by the USP/797 on labels and accessory labels for all compounded sterile preparations shipped off-site by a pharmacy?

Instructions for contacting the physician in case of emergency

55. Classify the risk level: Using multiple ampules to be transferred into one final sterile container.

Medium-Risk Level

56. Classify the risk level: Only a single transfer from a sterile vial utilizing sterile supplies.

Low Risk Level

57. Classify the risk level: Emergency Room Treatments to be used within 1 hour.

Immediate Use Risk Level

58. Classify the risk level: Sterile ingredients measured/mixed with nonsterile devices before sterilization is performed.

High Risk Leve