Unit 2 EMT - Allied Medical Training

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Last updated 11:31 PM on 6/12/26
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136 Terms

1
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Which of the following is the feeling infants get when they know all their needs will be met?

Bonding

2
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Infancy is defined as the stage of life from birth to:

12 months.

3
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When you startle a 4-month-old, he throws his arms out, spreads his fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as the:


Moro reflex.

4
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A 26-month-old toddler is reported to have fallen and lacerated his chin. His mother did not witness the fall. As you proceed through your assessment, your partner reports that she's concerned about his heart rate, which she measures as 64. She's checked it twice. Your knowledge of normal vital signs for a patient this age suggests that his heart rate is:

too slow.

5
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At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin?


Toddler

6
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Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a 4-year-old male patient?


Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg

7
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What is a normal heart rate for a school age child?

65-110/minute

8
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The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as which of the following?

Adolescence

9
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During which age group is the body in peak physical condition?


Early adult

10
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Which of the following is not a common psychosocial challenge of late adulthood?

Self-destructive behaviors

11
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Which of the following is the term used to describe an infant's reaction to his environment?

Temperament

12
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Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following challenges?


Self-worth

13
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Patients in which age group tend to be very concerned with body image?


Adolescence

14
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What is the stage of development where there are several physiological and psychosocial changes, second only to those seen in infancy or adolescence?


Late adulthood

15
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You are assessing a 6-month-old female patient who, according to the parents, is not acting normally. At this stage of development, the patient should be able to do which of the following?

Sit upright in a high chair

16
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In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood volume?

Late adulthood

17
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You are assessing a 12-year-old male patient who has been involved in a bicycle accident. This patient would be classified as being in which stage of life?


School age

18
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Your 4-month-old patient is reported to be irritable and lethargic after feeding poorly for two days. One method for assessing the patient's level of hydration is to look at one of the soft spots on the surface of the skull. This soft spot is known as the:

anterior fontanelle.

19
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Your 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out after bringing in his garbage cans from the curb. The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy. Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their health except:

an increase in metabolism.

20
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You are caring for a 4-month-old male patient who is reported to have vomited five times today. His parents describe no other associated symptoms or complaints. The patient is lying on the couch with a pacifier in his mouth, smiling at you. Developmentally, you would expect a patient of this age to be able to:

drool without swallowing.

21
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adolescence

stage of life from 13 to 18 years

22
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bonding

sense that needs will be met.

23
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early adulthood

stage of life from 19 to 40 years

24
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infancy

stage of life from birth to 1 year of age.

25
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late adulthood

stage of life from 61 years and older

26
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middle adulthood

stage of life from 41 to 60 years

27
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Moro reflex

response to being startled in which the infantthrows out both arms, spreads the fingers, then grabs with fingers and arms.

28
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palmar reflex

a grasping reflex in which an infant grabs onto a finger placed in the infant’s palm.

29
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preschool age

stage of life from 3 to 5 years.

30
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rooting reflex

a reflex response in which a hungry infant automatically turns toward the stimulus when the cheek or one side of the mouth is touched.

31
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scaffolding

building on what one already knows

32
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school age

stage of life from 6 to 12 years.

33
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sucking reflex

a reflex in which stroking a hungry infant’s lips causes the infant to start sucking.

34
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temperament

the infant’s reaction to the infant’s environment.

35
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toddler phase

stage of life from 12 to 36 months.

36
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trust versus mistrust

concept developed from an orderly, predictable environment versus a disorderly, irregular environment.

37
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blunt-force trauma

injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues.

38
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danger zone

the area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other incident within which special safety precautions should be taken.

39
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index of suspicion

awareness that there may be injuries.

40
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mechanism of injury

a force or forces that may have caused injury.

41
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nature of the illness

what is medically wrong with a patient

42
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penetrating trauma

injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues.

43
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scene size-up

steps taken when approaching the scene of an emergency call: checking scene safety, taking Standard Precautions, noting the mechanism of injury or nature of the patient’s illness, determining the number of patients, and deciding what, if any, additional resources to call for.

44
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Which of the following is not determined in a scene size-up?

Chief complaint

45
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At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up?

As you approach the scene in the ambulance

46
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You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by:

remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out

47
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As you arrive at the scene of a house fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first?

Size-up the scene before acting.

48
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At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone?

The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions.

49
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Which of the following is not a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone?

Amount of equipment needed

50
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You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation?

Reflective triangles

51
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You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should:

Wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.

52
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Which of the following is true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS call?

An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT.

53
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You are on the scene of an explosion at a suspected methamphetamine manufacturing operation. You and your partner are the first to arrive and note two middle-aged men and a woman on the front lawn with burns and cuts on their faces and arms. The fire department is en route. Which of the following resources would be the least important to request during the scene size-up?

Hazardous material clean-up crew

54
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As you are assessing a 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due to difficulty breathing, her husband enters the home through a back door and shouts, "Get your hands off her; she doesn't need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart mouth." Which of the following is the best course of action?

Leave the scene and the patient, and then notify police.

55
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As you approach the scene of a motorcycle accident, you see an EMR trying to stop the bleeding on the patient's left arm. You notice that the EMR has blood covering the front of his shirt and running down his arms. What Standard Precautions are needed?

Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed.

56
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You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion?

Neck injury

57
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Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred?

The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.

58
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When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is least important?

Patient's weight

59
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When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot wound, which of the following is true?

The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way.

60
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Which law of physics explains why a patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a tree?

Law of inertia

61
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Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to:

a trauma center.

62
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A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than ________ feet.

20

63
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Which of the following best describes blunt-force trauma?

An object strikes the body but does not penetrate the body tissues.

64
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In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook?

Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool

65
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Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle collision?

All of the answers are correct.

66
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You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene size-up. This is known as which of the following?


Index of suspicion

67
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You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You should:

Consult the Emergency Response Guidebook.

68
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Which of the following is true concerning scene size-up?

The need for additional resources must be determined on both medical and trauma calls.

69
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ABCs

airway, breathing, and circulation.

70
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APVU

a memory aid for classifying a patient’s level of responsiveness or mental status. The letters stand for alert, verbal response, painful response, unresponsive.

71
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chief complaint

the reason EMS was called, usually in the patient’s own words.

72
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general impression

impression of the patient’s condition that is formed on first approaching the patient, based on the patient’s environment, chief complaint, and appearance.

73
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interventions

actions taken to correct or manage a patient’s problems.

74
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manual stabilization

using one’s hands to prevent movement of a patient’s head and neck until a cervical collar can be applied.

75
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mental status

level of responsiveness

76
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primary assessment

the first element in a patient assessment; steps taken for the purpose of discovering and dealing with any life-threatening problems. The six parts of primary assessment are: (1) forming a general impression, (2) assessing mental status, (3) assessing airway, (4) assessing breathing, (5) assessing circulation, and (6) determining the priority of the patient for treatment and transport to the hospital.

77
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What are the 6 parts of a primary assessment?

(1) forming a general impression, (2) assessing mental status, (3) assessing airway, (4) assessing breathing, (5) assessing circulation, and (6) determining the priority of the patient for treatment and transport to the hospital.

78
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priority

the decision regarding the need for immediate transport of the patient versus further assessment and care at the scene.

79
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spinal motion restriction

a procedure for limiting movement of the head, neck, and spine when spinal injury is possible or likely.

80
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closed-ended question

a question requiring only a “yes” or “no” answer.

81
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crepitation

the grating sound or feeling of broken bones rubbing together.

82
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diagnosis

a description or label for a patient’s condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and treatment.

83
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differential diagnosis

a list of potential diagnoses compiled early in the assessment of the patient.

84
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history of the present illness (HPI)

information gathered regarding the symptoms and nature of the patient’s current concern.

85
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jugular vein distention (JVD)

bulging of the neck veins.

86
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open-ended question

a question requiring more than just a “yes” or “no” answer.

87
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OPQRST

a memory aid in which the letters stand for questions asked to get a description of the present illness: onset, provocation, quality, radiation, severity, time.

88
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What does OPQRST stand for?

onset, provocation, quality, radiation, severity, time.

89
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past medical history (PMH)

information gathered regarding the patient’s health problems in the past.

90
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SAMPLE

a memory aid in which the letters stand for elements of the past medical history: signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.

91
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What does SAMPLE stand for?

signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.

92
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Which term refers to the EMT's initial sense of the patient's condition, based on immediate assessment of the patient's environment, appearance, and chief complaint?

General impression

93
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Which of the following is not part of the general impression?

Patient's past medical history

94
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95
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In EMS, what does mental status refer to?

The patient's level of awareness of his surroundings

96
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In EMS, which of the following best describes the term intervention?

Taking steps to correct a problem

97
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Which of the following describes the chief complaint?

Reason why the patient summoned EMS

98
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Which of the following best describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"?

Clinical judgment

99
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You are at the scene where a 19-year-old female college student has been drinking large quantities of alcohol throughout the evening. On your arrival, the patient is lying on her back with no signs of trauma; has vomited; and has slow, wet sounding respirations. Which of the following should you do next?

Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver.

100
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Your patient is a middle-aged man who appears to be in distress and is clutching his chest. These observations lead you to suspect which type of problem?

Cardiac