(F) CC2 Lec L1

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https://docs.google.com/document/d/1RdPSL_ePEJp8przYT9MdD7txqRJ5hqK5YJxb3ilIy48/edit?usp=sharing

67 Terms

1
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Marijuana

Window of Detection in Urine:

  • 2 days - 3 weeks

Initial Screening Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 50

Confirmatory Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 15


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Cocaine

Window of Detection in Urine:

  • 2 - 3 days

Initial Screening Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 300

Confirmatory Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 150


3
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Opiates

Window of Detection in Urine:

  • 2 - 3 days

Initial Screening Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 2000

Confirmatory Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 2000


4
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Amphetamine

Window of Detection in Urine:

  • 2 - 3 days

Initial Screening Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 1000

Confirmatory Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 250


5
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Methamphetamine

Window of Detection in Urine:

  • 2 - 3 days

Initial Screening Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 500

Confirmatory Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 250


6
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PCP (Phencyclidine)

Window of Detection in Urine:

  • 8 days - 3 weeks

Initial Screening Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 25

Confirmatory Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 25


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Benzodiazepines

Window of Detection in Urine:

  • 3 or more days

Initial Screening Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 300

Confirmatory Cut-off (ng/dL):

  • 300


8
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A

What refers to the policy of the State aimed at safeguarding its citizenry from the harmful effects of dangerous drugs?

  • a. Republic Act No. 9165

  • b. Chain of Custody

  • c. Custody and Control Form

  • d. Confirmatory Drug Testing

  • e. Specimen Validity Testing


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C

Which two substances are considered the top predominantly abused drugs in the Philippines?

  • a. Amphetamines and Methamphetamines

  • b. Benzodiazepines and Barbiturates

  • c. Marijuana and Shabu

  • d. Morphine and Codeine

  • e. Hydromorphone and Oxycodone


10
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B

Who strictly supervises and operates a Confirmatory Drug Testing Laboratory (CDTL)?

  • a. Registered Medical Technologist

  • b. Registered Chemist

  • c. Authorized Specimen Collector

  • d. Drug Test Analyst

  • e. Head of the Laboratory


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C

Which drug is therapeutically used for the treatment of narcolepsy and Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

  • a. Methamphetamine

  • b. MDMA

  • c. Amphetamines

  • d. Cocaine

  • e. Phencyclidine


12
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E

What is the active composition of the street drug known as "Shabu"?

  • a. 57% Cannabis sativa

  • b. Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay

  • c. Benzoylecgonine

  • d. Tetrahydrocannabinol

  • e. 35% Methamphetamine Hydrochloride


13
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A

Which toxic effect is a distinct characteristic of MDMA (Ecstasy)?

  • a. Stiffening of arms, legs, and jaw

  • b. Severe teeth grinding (bruxism)

  • c. Impairment of short-term memory

  • d. Severe hypertension and arrhythmias

  • e. Testicular atrophy


14
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C

What is the most active psychoactive component of marijuana?

  • a. Benzoylecgonine

  • b. Ephedrine

  • c. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)

  • d. Phencyclidine

  • e. Secobarbital


15
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A

What is the primary urine metabolite for Cocaine that acts as a high-yield target for drug panels?

  • a. Benzoylecgonine

  • b. Codeine

  • c. Morphine

  • d. Methadone

  • e. Fentanyl


16
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D

What is the clinical therapeutic use of Cocaine?

  • a. Treatment of narcolepsy

  • b. Powerful analgesic and sedative

  • c. Treatment for male hypogonadism

  • d. Local anesthetic for nasopharyngeal surgery

  • e. Treatment for Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder


17
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C

Which of the following is considered a naturally occurring opiate?

  • a. Heroin

  • b. Oxycodone

  • c. Morphine

  • d. Meperidine

  • e. Fentanyl


18
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B

Which drug has a highly lipophilic property that allows it to distribute rapidly into adipose and brain tissue?

  • a. Cocaine

  • b. Phencyclidine (PCP)

  • c. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)

  • d. MDMA

  • e. Diazepam


19
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D

Which of the following drugs falls under the Benzodiazepine classification?

  • a. Secobarbital

  • b. Pentobarbital

  • c. Phenobarbital

  • d. Lorazepam

  • e. Meperidine


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C

Which of the following can cause toxic hepatitis, accelerated atherosclerosis, and testicular atrophy when illicitly abused?

  • a. Opiates

  • b. Sedative-Hypnotics

  • c. Anabolic Steroids

  • d. Amphetamines

  • e. Phencyclidine


21
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A

What form provides complete documentation of a specimen's handling to maintain the Chain of Custody?

  • a. Custody and Control Form

  • b. Tamper-evident seal

  • c. Result window

  • d. Screening Drug Testing Form

  • e. Rapid Diagnostic Test Form


22
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C

What is the required volume for a urine drug test specimen?

  • a. At least 5 mL

  • b. Exactly 10 mL

  • c. At least 60 mL

  • d. Exactly 2 drops

  • e. At least 1 cm


23
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A

What is the strictly acceptable temperature range for a urine specimen within 5 minutes of collection?

  • a. 32.5-37.7°C

  • b. 4.5-8.0

  • c. 1.002-1.020

  • d. 35%

  • e. 57%


24
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D

Which alternative specimen is considered excellent for evaluating a chronic drug user?

  • a. Urine

  • b. Blood

  • c. Sweat

  • d. Scalp Hair

  • e. Saliva


25
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C

What is the strict collection requirement for a blood specimen in drug testing?

  • a. 60 mL sterile clean-catch midstream

  • b. Cut 1 cm above the scalp

  • c. 5 mL drawn into a 10 mL plain tube strictly without anticoagulant

  • d. Sweat patch applied to the upper arm

  • e. 2 drops squeezed into the sample well


26
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D

What is the laboratory retention policy for a specimen yielding a negative result?

  • a. Minimum of 15 days

  • b. Maximum of 1 year

  • c. Exactly 5 minutes

  • d. Minimum of 5 days

  • e. 2 to 3 days


27
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C

Which of the following circumstances triggers a Non-Correctable Rejection for a specimen?

  • a. Failure of the ASC to sign the CCF

  • b. Failure to record the specimen temperature

  • c. Broken or tampered seal

  • d. Appropriate remarks added

  • e. Acceptable temperature range


28
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B

What physiological waste product is measured to biochemically confirm if the specimen is actual human urine?

  • a. Nitrites

  • b. Creatinine

  • c. Specific gravity

  • d. pH

  • e. Oxidizing adulterants


29
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A

A drug testing specimen with a Nitrite level of ≥ 500µg/L is categorically classified as a/an:

  • a. Adulterated Specimen

  • b. Substituted Specimen

  • c. Diluted Specimen

  • d. Negative Result

  • e. Invalid Result


30
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B

A specimen is officially considered substituted when the specific gravity is:

  • a. <1.003

  • b. Strictly <1.002 or ≥1.020

  • c. Exactly 1.000

  • d. Between 4.5-8.0

  • e. ≥11


31
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D

What specific validity criteria defines a diluted specimen?

  • a. Creatinine <442.0µmol/L

  • b. Nitrite ≥500µg/L

  • c. pH <3 or ≥11

  • d. Creatinine <1768.0µmol/L and Specific gravity <1.003

  • e. Specific gravity strictly <1.002 or ≥1.020


32
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D

Which immunoassay screening method uniquely utilizes radioisotopes to tag antibodies?

  • a. Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)

  • b. Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique (EMIT)

  • c. Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay (FPIA)

  • d. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

  • e. Chemiluminescence


33
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A

In Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS), the GC component specifically separates analytes based on their:

  • a. Volatility

  • b. Specific gravity

  • c. Antibody-antigen reactions

  • d. pH levels

  • e. Lipophilic property


34
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C

Which analytical technique drastically enhances trace element detection capability through the use of a second mass spectrometer?

  • a. High-Performance Liquid Chromatography

  • b. Thin Layer Chromatography

  • c. Tandem Mass Spectrometry

  • d. Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry

  • e. Liquid Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry


35
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B

Exactly how many drops of urine are required to be squeezed into the sample well of a rapid drug test kit?

  • a. 5 drops

  • b. Exactly 2 drops

  • c. 1 cm

  • d. At least 60 drops

  • e. 5 mL


36
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E

What is the interpretation when only one purple band appears in the Control (C) region and NO line appears in the Test (T) region of a rapid kit?

  • a. Negative Result

  • b. Substituted Specimen

  • c. Invalid Result

  • d. Diluted Specimen

  • e. Positive Result


37
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E

What major downside of urine testing can cause a false-negative result in chronic drug abusers who temporarily stop using?

  • a. Competitive Immunoassay

  • b. Hyphenated Techniques

  • c. Chain of Custody

  • d. Exogenous substance

  • e. Window of detection


38
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Republic Act No. 9165

The legal policy enacted to safeguard the citizenry from the harmful effects of dangerous drugs, also known as the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.

39
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Drugs of Abuse

Any non-medical use of legally available or illegal substances that causes physical, psychological, legal, economic, or social damage to the user.

40
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Screening Drug Testing Laboratory (SDTL)

The laboratory tier that performs initial tests utilizing Rapid Diagnostic Test (RDT) kits and Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA).

41
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Bruxism

A prominent toxic effect of amphetamines characterized by severe teeth grinding.

42
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MDMA (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine) / Ecstasy

A highly popular recreational designer drug, derived from methamphetamine, which commonly causes stiffening of the arms, legs, and jaw.

43
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Cannabis sativa L. (Indian Hemp)

The specific botanical source from which street marijuana is derived.

44
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Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)

The most active psychoactive component of marijuana which causes short-term memory impairment.

45
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Coca bush

The plant source from which cocaine is derived.

46
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Benzoylecgonine

The primary urine metabolite of cocaine that acts as the high-yield target for standard drug panels.

47
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Opiates (Narcotics)

Chemicals derived directly from the opium poppy that serve as powerful analgesics, sedatives, and anesthesia agents.

48
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Heroin

A chemically modified opiate alongside Hydromorphone and Oxycodone.

49
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Phencyclidine (PCP)

A unique drug that distributes rapidly into adipose and brain tissue due to its highly lipophilic property.

50
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Barbiturates

A sedative-hypnotic classification that includes secobarbital, pentobarbital, and phenobarbital.

51
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Anabolic Steroids

Substances used clinically to treat male hypogonadism but illicitly abused by athletes to rapidly improve muscle mass, leading to testicular atrophy.

52
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Custody and Control Form (CCF)

The form that provides complete documentation of a specimen's handling to maintain the Chain of Custody.

53
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Authorized Specimen Collector (ASC)

The designated personnel who prepares supplies, verifies donor identification, and observes the specimen collection process.

54
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Sterile, clean-catch midstream collection

The collection technique mandated for urine specimens to prevent contamination.

55
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Within 5 minutes

The precise timeframe within which the ASC must measure the specimen temperature after it has been collected.

56
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Scalp Hair

The specimen type collected by cutting 1 cm above the scalp, which is heavily utilized for evaluating a chronic drug user.

57
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1 year

The maximum duration a positive drug test specimen can be retained upon a formal request.

58
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Non-Correctable Rejection

The rejection category applied to specimens possessing incompatible ID numbers or a broken/tampered seal.

59
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Validity Testing

The testing procedure implemented to ensure specimen integrity by examining physical parameters and biochemical markers.

60
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Creatinine

A physiological waste product continuously cleared by the body that is measured to confirm if the submitted specimen is actual human urine.

61
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Adulterated Specimen

The category of an invalid specimen wherein the donor adds an exogenous substance such as household bleach.

62
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Substituted Specimen

The category of an invalid specimen indicated by a creatinine level of strictly <442.0µmol/L.

63
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Diluted Specimen

The category of an invalid specimen marked by a creatinine level of <1768.0µmol/L coupled with a specific gravity of <1.003.

64
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Immunoassays

Highly sensitive screening tests that utilize antibody-antigen reactions to detect small amounts of a drug or its metabolites.

65
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Liquid Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (LC-MS)

A confirmatory analytical technique heavily combining the separation power of liquid chromatography with the high sensitivity of mass spectrometry.

66
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Exactly 5 minutes

The exact time constraint placed on interpreting the results of a rapid drug testing kit.

67
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Negative Result

The result interpretation derived when two purple bands appear on the rapid kit, consisting of one in the Control (C) region and one in the Test (T) region.