Fripty Study Bundle SLP Set 18 - Student Developed - Fripty Approved

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Last updated 7:06 PM on 5/8/26
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87 Terms

1
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What is a central auditory processing disorder?

disorder in a person's ability to take in a spoken message, interpret it and make it meaningful

2
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What are some common characteristics in patients with central auditory disorders?

poor auditory discrimination skills

poor auditory integration n

poor auditory sequencing skills

difficulty listening with background noise

poor auditory attention and memory

poor auditory localization

difficulty understanding rapid speech

difficulty following melodic and rhythmic elements of speech

difficulty with vocab and pragmatic

3
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What are Retrocochlear disorders? what causes them?

damage to nerve fibers along ascending auditory pathways

acoustic neuromas (tumors)

4
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What does an audiogram for someone with acoustic neuromas look like?

unilateral high frequency loss

5
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What is an audiometer?

electronic instrument that generates pure tones for testing hearing

6
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How do you conduct a pure tone audiometry?

Used to determine threshold of hearing

You usually start at 1000 Hz, then go to 2000, 4000 and 8000, then down to 500 and 250. Both ears are tested.

7
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What is a threshold?

the lowest intensity level where a tone is heard at least 50% of the time.

8
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What is bone conduction testing?

A bone vibrator is placed on forehead or behind ear.

9
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What is masking?

It is when noise is sent through a headphone to mask the tone that is being heard in the other ear.

10
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What is speech audiometry testing?

It measures how well a person understands speech. a speech reception threshold must be established (the lowest level of hearing where a person can understand speech 50% of the time). spondees are used.

11
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What are spondees?

two syllable words with equal stress

12
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What is acoustic immittance?

Acoustic immittance is a measurement of energy or air pressure flow, which involves the ear canal, eardrum, ossicular chain, tensor tympani, stapedius muscle, cochlea, CNs VII and VIII, and the brainstem

13
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What is impedance and why is it important?

It's resistance to the flow of sound energy. It's important because pathologies have impedance.

14
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What is a tympanometry?

Tympanometry is an examination used to test the condition of the middle ear and mobility of the eardrum (tympanic membrane) and the conduction bones by creating variations of air pressure in the ear canal.

Procedure in which acoustic immittance is measured with an impedance meter. sound is placed in ear and it measures changes in acoustic energy.

15
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What is an electrocochleography?

procedure for measuring the electoral activity of the cochlea in response to sound.

16
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What is an auditory brainstem response?

procedure for measuring electrical activity in the auditory nerve, brainstem and cortical areas of the brain. useful for brainstem diseases and hearing in newborns.

17
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How does an audiogram look for a conductive hearing loss?

Bone conduction is normal. There is a air-bone gap.

18
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How does an audiogram look for a sensorineural hearing loss?

There is no air-bone gap.

19
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What are some common speech disorders in children who are deaf and hard of hearing?

distortion

omission

CCR

substitute voiced for voiceless

omission of s

imprecise vowels

epenthesis

20
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What are some common language disorders in children who are deaf and hard of hearing?

limited variety of sentence types

reduced sentence length

difficult comprehension

difficulty with abstract language

21
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What are some voice, fluency and resonance disorders in children who are deaf and hard of hearing?

hyper or hyponasal

abnormal phrasing, flow, rhythm

monotone

improper stress patterns

inappropriate/restricted pitch

inappropriate rate

22
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What is the focus with aural rehabilitation?

speech reading and auditory training. acoustic highlighting

23
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What is auditory training?

people with hearing impairments are trained to listen to sounds, recognize meanings and discriminate. they may wear an auditory trainer or FM system.

24
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What is signal to noise ratio?

the difference between stimulus of interest (ex. teachers voice) and competing background noise

25
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What is speech reading?

deciphering speech by looking at the face of the speaker

26
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What is cued speech?

speech produced with manual cues that represent the sounds of speech. composed of only 8 signs.

27
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What is oral language training?

helping children who are deaf and hard of hearing express themselves.

28
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What is the continuum of training for deaf and hard of hearing individuals?

Aural/oral method: taps individuals residual hearing

Manual approach: signing and fingerspelling

Total communication: verbal and nonverbal methods

29
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What are nonverbal communication training approaches for individuals who are deaf and hard of hearing?

ASL

Seeing Essential English: breaks down ASL into morphemes and uses written English word order.

Signing Exact English: breaks down words into morphemes when they stand alone

Fingerspelling

Rochester method: oral speech and fingerspelling

30
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What are the components of a standard assessment?

screening

case history (description of communication disorder, prior assessments or treatments, family info and family style, prenatal, birth, developmental history, medical history, educational history, occupational history and prognosis)

hearing screening

orofacial examination

interview (obtain data, inform clients/families, provide support)

speech and language samples

obtain any other related assessment data (behavioral/medical/psychological evaluations)

31
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What are the procedures for obtaining a speech sample?

tape record it

obtain a minimum of 100 utterances

observe and take notes

yes a quiet room

select stimuli that is appropriate

repeat what someone says if they're unintelligible or if it's unclear

open ended questions

32
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What's the difference between multidisciplinary, transdisciplinary and interdisciplinary?

multi: multiple disciplines. each person does their own thing and report, little interaction

trans: work together in assessment but only one or two team members provide services

inter: team members interact and use other's suggestions and information in interpreting data.

33
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Are standardized tests and norm-referenced tests the same?

no, a test can be standardized without being norm referenced.

34
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What are some limitations of standardized tests?

the clients are not represented in the normative sample

-tests are formal and people may not be familiar with format

-they may not capture the child's true skill

-they don't give information on the strategies the child used

-poor for developing treatment goals

35
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In a normal distribution, how many fall within 1 standard deviation above and below the mean?

68% of the sample will have scores between 85 and 115 (assuming mean is 100)

36
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What are percentile ranks?

converted scores that show the percentage of subjects who scored at or below a specific raw scores.

37
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What does 25th percentile mean?

That means that 75% of the sample performed better.

38
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What is validity?

the degree to which a test measures what it says it measures. the Peabody test said it measured intelligence. however, it only tests receptive vocabulary, so that's not valid.

39
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What is concurrent validity?

the degree to which a new test correlates with an established test of known validity (the gold standard).

40
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What is construct validity?

the degree to which test scores are consistent with theoretical constructs, concepts or expectations.

41
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What is content validity?

a measure of the validity of a test based on thorough examination of all test items to determine whether the emts are relevant to measuring what they test purports to measure and whether the items sample the full range. a test of articulation should include all speech sounds.

42
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What is predictive validity?

the accuracy to with which a test predicts future performance on a related task. GRE.

43
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What is reliability?

the consistency with which the same event is repeatedly measured. scores are consistent across repeated testing.

44
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Reliability is measured in terms of what?

correlational coefficient

45
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What is correlational coefficient?

r value

the highest positive value is 1

the lowest negative value is -1

0 indicates there is no relationship

the higher the number, the greater the relationship

46
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What is interjudge reliability?

how similarly a subjects performance is independently rated or measured by two or more observers

47
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What is intrajudge reliability?

the consistency with which the same observer measures the same phenomenon on repeated occasions

48
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What is alternate form reliability?

the consistency of a measure when two forms of the same test are administered to the same person. like the PPVT has form a and form b. the child should get similar scores on both forms.

49
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What is test-retest reliability?

the consistency of measures when the same test is administered to the same person twice.

50
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What is split-half reliability?

measures internal consistency of a test.

51
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What's the difference between a nominal and ordinal scale?

nominal is based off categories (sometimes, always, never or mild, moderate, severe)

ordinal is based off numerical scale

52
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What is a functional assessment?

When you evaluate a client's day-to-day communication skills in a natural, socially meaningful setting.

-observe the client with family or peers

-obtain several speech samples

-observe the child in the classroom, cafeteria, playground etc

-really look at conversational interactions

53
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What are client-specific procedures?

sample speech-langue behaviors repeatedly by means of culturally appropriate client-specific materials. You should establish a baseline.

54
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What are criterion referenced assessment?

To see if they have it or don't. Good for goal writing.

55
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What is an authentic assessment?

naturalistic observation of skill.

56
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What is a dynamic assessment?

evaluate a child's ability to learn when provided with instruction. test-teach-retest

57
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What is a portfolio assessment?

collecting samples of child's works

58
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What is a comprehensive and integrated assessment?

clinician obtains elements from traditional approach (hearing screening, case history, etc) and a sample of their communication in social contexts.

59
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What are antecedents?

stimuli the clinician uses to evoke target responses

60
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What are aversive event?

events people tend to avoid. (person who stutters avoids speaking on the phone-it's an aversive event)

61
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What is avoidance?

an action that results in not coming in contact with an aversive event.

62
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What is a booster treatment?

treatment given any time after a client has been dismissed.

63
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What are consequences (of target responses)?

clinician reaction when the client gives a correct or incorrect response.

64
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What is corrective feedback?

information given to the client

65
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What are direct methods of response reduction?

reducing behaviors immediately. "no, that's not correct"

66
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What are discrete trials?

each opportunity to produce a response is counted separately. each is a trial.

67
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What is an escape?

a behavior that reduced or terminates an aversive event.

68
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What is an evoked response?

spontaneous response given to a natural stimuli

69
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What is continuous reinforcement?

a method of reinforcing all correct responses in treatment sessions

70
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What is intermittent reinforcement?

reinforcing only some responses

71
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What is differential reinforcement?

reinforcing correct responses and ignoring incorrect responses

72
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What is differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors?

reinforcing a specific, desirable alternative to an undesirable behavior

73
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What is a differential reinforcement of lower rates of responding?

decreasing undesirable behaviors gradually by reinforcing progressively lower frequencies of that behavior

74
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What is a differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviors?

reinforcing a desirable behavior that cannot coexist with an undesirable behavior.

75
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What is a differential reinforcement of other behaviors?

specifying one behavior that will not be reinforced while reinforcing unspecified desirable behavior.

76
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What is negative reinforcement?

Negative reinforcement occurs when something already present is removed (taken away) as a result of a behavior and the behavior that led to this removal will increase in the future because it created a favorable outcome.

77
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What are automatic reinforcers?

sensory consequences of a behavior that reinforce that behavior (child with autism bangs head and it hurts)

78
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What are backup reinforcers?

reinforcer given at the end of a treatment session.

-earning tokens and trading them in for a reward

79
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What are conditioned or secondary reinforcers?

things such as praise, smiles and approval that strengthen a persons response because of past learning. also things such as money or tokens

80
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What are negative reinforcers?

events that are aversive and reinforce a response that terminates or postpones the aversive event. people making fun of a boys stutters, the boy doesn't talk

81
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What are positive reinforcers?

Events that follow a response and thereby strengthen them

82
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What are primary reinforcers?

things such as food and water. helpful for infants, toddlers or the ID

83
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What are secondary reinforcers?

social or conditioned reinforcers (tokens)

84
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What is the normative strategy to selecting treatment targets?

norms provide the best basis for selecting target behaviors.

85
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What is the client-specific strategy to selecting treatment targets?

behaviors are selected that will improve the client's communication and help meet the social, academic and other demands made on the client

86
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What is the functional communication strategy to selecting treatment targets?

focus less on grammar and syntax and more on effective and functional communication

87
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What is a general outline for a treatment program?

step 1: asses client's communication behaviors

step 2: select target behaviors for training. short term and long term goals

step 3: establish baselines

step 4: plan a treatment program

step 5: implement the treatment program

step 6: implement a maintenance program

step 7: follow up on the client's progress

step 8: arrange for a booster treatment