Micro - Unit 1: Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

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327 Terms

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What Gram stain shape is shared by Staphylococcaceae, Streptococcus, and Enterococcaceae?

Gram positive cocci

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What arrangements are seen with Gram positive cocci?

Pairs, clusters, tetrads, and chains

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What atmospheric requirement do Staphylococci have?

Facultative anaerobe

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What CO2 concentration do most clinical labs use for incubation?

3-5% CO2

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What is the mechanism of beta lactam antibiotics?

They interfere with cell wall synthesis (peptidoglycan production)

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What does the beta lactam ring structure target?

Cell wall synthesis

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What is the first choice of antimicrobials for Staphylococci?

Penicillins, oxacillin, ampicillin, cephems

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What does CLSI stand for?

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute

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What does CNISP stand for?

Canadian Nosocomial Infection Surveillance Program

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What is the purpose of CNISP?

To monitor rates and trends of healthcare-associated infections, enable comparison of rates, and provide data to develop national guidelines

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What agency runs CNISP?

Public Health Agency of Canada

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What was the former family name of Staphylococcus?

Micrococcaceae

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What is the Gram stain and arrangement of Staphylococcus?

Gram positive cocci in grapelike clusters

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What is the atmospheric requirement of most Staphylococcus?

Facultative anaerobe

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What is the colony morphology of Staphylococcus?

Smooth, butyrous, cream coloured/white after 18-24 hrs growth

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What is the hemolysis of most Staphylococcus aureus strains?

Beta hemolytic

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What percentage of the population carries Staphylococcus as normal flora?

20-40%

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What is the primary reservoir of Staphylococcus?

Nares

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What are other reservoirs of Staphylococcus?

Axillae, vagina, pharynx, skin

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Where is Staphylococcus carriage higher?

Healthcare professionals/hospital personnel

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What are the two types of Staphylococcus infections?

Suppurative (invasive) or toxin mediated

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What skin infections does Staphylococcus aureus cause?

Boils (furuncle, carbuncle), folliculitis, cellulitis

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What organ infections does Staphylococcus aureus cause?

Pneumonia, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septicemia

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What causes Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning?

Ingestion of toxin - heat stable enterotoxin (A-E)

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How soon after ingestion do Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning symptoms occur?

2-8 hours

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What foods are associated with Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning?

Meat or dairy products

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What causes Scalded Skin Syndrome?

Pyogenic exfoliating toxin

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What is the mortality rate of Toxic Shock Syndrome?

2-5%

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What are the symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome?

Fever, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, aches, rash, progressing to hypotension and shock

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What does Staphylococcus epidermidis cause?

Nosocomial infection from catheters (Foley) and prosthetic devices via biofilm production

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What patients are susceptible to Staphylococcus epidermidis?

Immuno-compromised patients, diabetic, cancer, pregnancy

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What does Staphylococcus saprophyticus cause?

UTI; 2nd most common cause of female cystitis

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What is Staphylococcus lugdunensis?

Commensal (Normal flora, Mixed indigenous flora ) opportunistic pathogen causing endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septicemia

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What are the predisposing factors for Staphylococcus infection?

Defects in leukocyte chemotaxis, opsonization by antibodies, intracellular killing after phagocytosis, skin injuries, foreign bodies, sutures, IVs, infection with another agent, chronic underlying disease, therapeutic or prophylactic antibiotic treatment

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What is the virulence factor of Enterotoxins?

Stable exotoxin to 100 degrees C

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What is the virulence factor of Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1?

Superantigen that elicits an aggressive immune response

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What is the virulence factor of exfoliative toxin?

Infected bacteria causes skin to slough off

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What is the virulence factor of cytolytic toxins?

Affects RBCs (alpha, beta) and WBCs

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What are the virulence factor enzymes of Staphylococcus?

Catalase: Present in all Staph. species

Coagulase: Staph. aureus

Hyaluronidase: Hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid

Protease: Breaks down proteins/peptides

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What is the overall effect of Staphylococcus enzymes?

Destruction of tissues and allows spread of infection

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What is Protein A?

Cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus; blocks phagocytosis

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What is the function of capsule formation in Staphylococcus?

Resist phagocytosis

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What is ESS?

Extracellular slime substance; produced by all Staphylococcus sp; biofilms and love of plastic

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What is the catalase test reaction?

2H2O2 -> 2H2O + O2 (catalase)

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What does a positive catalase test look like?

Bubbling appears immediately

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What does the catalase test differentiate?

Staphylococcus (positive) from Streptococcus (negative)

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What is the reagent for coagulase testing?

EDTA rabbit plasma

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What does slide coagulase detect?

Clumping factor (bound coagulase)

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What is the procedure for slide coagulase?

1 drop loop saline/water + isolate + coagulase reagent

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What is a positive slide coagulase result?

Clumping in <10 seconds

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What must be done if slide coagulase is negative?

Tube coagulase test

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What does tube coagulase detect?

Free coagulase (thrombin-like substance forms a fibrin clot); both free and bound clumping factor detected

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What is the procedure for tube coagulase?

Reaction tube + 0.5 mL EDTA rabbit plasma + loopful of isolate

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How often is tube coagulase observed?

Every 30 minutes up to 4 hours at 35 degrees C, then up to 24 hours overnight

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What is a positive tube coagulase result?

Any type of clot

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What controls must be run with tube coagulase?

Positive and negative controls

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What can happen to the clot in tube coagulase?

Some strains lyse clot after formation or produce a weak clot

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What should you NOT do while viewing tube coagulase?

Do NOT over shake tube

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What can a contaminant produce in tube coagulase?

Fibrinolysin

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What is the coagulase result for MRSA?

Can be slide negative, tube weak positive

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What other staphylococci can produce clumping factor or staphylocoagulase?

Staphylococci other than S. aureus

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What is the rapid latex agglutination method for S. aureus?

Commercial kit of a slide latex detecting protein A and clumping factor

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What is the procedure for rapid latex agglutination?

"Drop, drop, rock method"

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What is the commercial kit used in lab for S. aureus ID?

Staphaurex

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Why is latex agglutination used instead of tube coagulase in lab?

Due to time constraints

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What does DNase agar test for?

Enzyme secreted by cell to cleave DNA (DNA hydrolysis)

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What is the procedure for DNase agar?

"Spot" inoculate onto media, incubate 18-24 hrs, view for zone of clearing around colony growth

<p>"Spot" inoculate onto media, incubate 18-24 hrs, view for zone of clearing around colony growth</p>
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What is the DNase result for S. aureus?

Positive

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What is the purpose of novobiocin susceptibility?

For urinary tract isolates; for coagulase negative staphylococci

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What is the resistance breakpoint for novobiocin?

R <16, S >=16

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What does novobiocin resistance presumptively identify?

Staphylococcus saprophyticus (common UTI clinical isolate)

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What are the methods not routinely performed for Staphylococcus?

Glucose OF, Modified oxidase, Bacitracin (Taxo A disk)

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What is MALDI-TOF?

Mass spectrometry - matrix-assisted laser desorption-ionization time-of-flight

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What are the characteristics of Staph aureus?

Bound or free coagulase positive, DNase positive, 2 mm creamy white/butyrous beta hemolytic, MF, PYR and ODC negative

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What are the characteristics of Staph epidermidis?

Bound or free coagulase negative, DNase negative, 1 mm white non hemolytic, NMF, PYR and ODC negative

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What are the characteristics of Staph saprophyticus?

Bound or free coagulase negative, DNase negative, 1 mm creamy white non hemolytic, mannitol fermenter, delayed reaction appearing as NMF after 18 hours

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What is unique about Staph lugdunensis coagulase?

May produce bound coagulase (positive slide-coagulase) but negative tube-coagulase

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What is unique about Staph lugdunensis biochemistry?

Decarboxylates ornithine (ODC+), PYR+

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What is the colony morphology of Staph lugdunensis?

Usually beta hemolytic, sticky, yellow or tan, 1-2 mm

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Why are most Staph aureus penicillin resistant?

They secrete beta-lactamase (penicillinase)

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What gene encodes methicillin resistance?

mecA gene

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What is the product of the mecA gene?

Penicillin-binding protein 2a (PBP2a)

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What does oxacillin/cefoxitin resistance imply?

Methicillin resistance and resistance to all beta lactams (penicillins, beta lactam/beta lactamase inhibitor combinations, cephalosporins, carbapenems)

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Why is methicillin not stable in vitro?

It degrades

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What disk is used to detect oxacillin resistance per CLSI?

30 ug cefoxitin (surrogate)

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What should NEVER be reported to the doctor?

Cefoxitin and novobiocin

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What is reported instead of cefoxitin?

Oxacillin or methicillin

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What media is used for oxacillin disk diffusion?

Mueller Hinton agar

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What supplement is added to Mueller Hinton agar for hetero-resistant strains?

2% NaCl

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What is considered resistance on oxacillin disk diffusion?

Any growth

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How should susceptibility media be examined?

With transmitted overhead light; sharp clear borders = S, feathered border or trailing edges = R

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What temperature may fail to detect resistance?

Above 35 degrees C

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What is oxacillin salt agar screening used for?

Determining MRSA carriers

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What are the components of oxacillin salt agar?

Mueller Hinton agar with 4% NaCl and 6 ug/mL oxacillin

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How long is oxacillin salt agar incubated?

24 up to 48 hours aerobic

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When may a preliminary report be issued for oxacillin salt agar?

At 24 hours

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What indicates resistance on oxacillin salt agar?

Any growth

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What is the media for CHROM ID?

Cefoxitin 4 mg/L, targets alpha glucosidase

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What color are colonies on CHROM ID?

Green

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What is the media for ORSAB?

Mannitol salt agar, oxacillin 2 mg/L, polymyxin, aniline blue