EMT Chapter 7-12 (homework questions)

a disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, eventually leading to a partial or complete blockage of bloodflow ?

atherosclerosis

injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example, from too much pressure in the lungs

barotrauma

a type of reasoning in which a child looks for approval from peers and society

conventional reasoning

a young adult age 19-40

early adult

areas where the neonate's or infant's skull has not fused together; usually disappear at approximately 18 months of age

fontanelles

a young child age 1 month to 1 year

infant

the average number of years a person can be expected to live?

life expectancy

an adult age 41 to 60 years

middle adult

an infant reflex in which, when an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab things?

moro reflex

a newborn age birth to 1 month

neonate

the basic filtering units in the kidneys

nephrons

an adult age 61 years or older

older adult

an infant reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infant's palm; the infant grasps the object

palmar grasp

a type of reasoning in which a child bases decisions on his or her conscience ?

postconventional reasoning

a type of reasoning in which a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what he or she wants ?

preconventional reasoning

children between ages 3 to 6 years

preschool- age

an infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infant's cheek and the infant instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch

rooting reflex

a person who is 6 to 12 years of age

school age

an infant reflex in which the infants starts sucking when his or her lips are stroked ?

sucking reflex

a child age 1 to 3

toddler

refers to a stage of development from birth to approximately 18 months of age, during which infants gain trust of their parents or caregivers if their world is planned, organized, and routine

trust and mistrust

a 16 year old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. during your assessment interview, you should ?

inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible

the respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is

normal

During respiration, the movement of air into and out of the lungs requires that:

airflow be unobstructed and move freely

When a patient inhales, air enters the throat, which is divided into the:

nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx

The hypopharynx is also called the:

laryngopharynx

The large leaf-life structure that protects the opening to the trachea is called the:

epiglottis

When we say that a patient is experiencing lower airway obstruction, it is likely that:

his or her bronchial passages or alveoli are congested

Signs of a potentially inadequate airway include:

absent air movement, unusual hoarse or raspy sound quality to the voice, abnormal noises such as wheezing, crowing, or stridor

An inadequate airway in a child is defined as:

retractions above the clavicles and between and below the ribs

When you question an elderly woman with a respiratory complaint, she speaks in short, two- or three-word sentences. Is this significant?

Yes, she is probably very short of breath

Your patient was the driver of a car that stopped suddenly when she hit a pole. She was not wearing her seatbelt and has a bruise on her neck. She speaks very softly and seems to have a raspy voice. Is this significant?

Yes, low volume and raspy tone could be due to airway swelling from neck or laryngeal trauma

One indication that a child is experiencing inadequate breathing is that she:

has nasal flaring when breathing

The very first step to aid a patient who is not breathing is to:

open the airway

What is the importance of mechanism of injury (MOI) to airway care?

The procedure for opening the patient's airway is different in trauma.

To open the airway of a patient with a suspected head, neck, or spine injury the EMT should use a ____ maneuver.

jaw-thrust

When performing the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver, the EMT should

position himself at the top of the patient's head

When performing the jaw-thrust maneuver, the EMT should do each one of the following:

kneel at the top of the patient's head, stabilize the head with the forearms, use the index fingers to push the angles of the patient's lower jaw forward.

The main purpose of the jaw-thrust maneuver is to:

open the airway without moving the head or neck

An oral or nasal airway should be:

used to keep the tongue from blocking the airway

If something is placed in the patient's throat, the gag reflex causes the patient to:

vomit or retch

An oropharyngeal airway of proper size extends from the:

corner of the patient's mouth to the tip of the earlobe

In an adult patient an oral airway should be inserted:

upside down, with the tip toward the roof of the mouth, the flipped 180 degrees over the tongue

A nasopharyngeal airway should be measured:

from the patient's nostril to the earlobe.

When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, lubricate the outside of the tube with:

a water-based lubricant

The purposes of suctioning may include removal of:

blood, vomitus, and other secretions.

When a patient begins to vomit, it is essential that you have _____ ready to go at the patient's side.

a suction unit

You are treating a 29-year-old female who has major airway problems. She has thick secretions and blood in her upper airway that needs to be suctioned with a Yankauer. What is true of the Yankauer suction tip?

it has a rigid tip, it allows for excellent control over the distal end of the device, it has a larger bore than flexible catheters.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:

Select one:

A. elevate his legs and keep him warm.

B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

C. apply direct pressure to the wound.

D. ensure that his airway is patent.

apply direct pressure to the wound

A palpable pulse is created by:

Select one:

A. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.

C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.

D. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.

pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:

Select one:

A. obtaining baseline vital signs.

B. airway, breathing, and circulation.

C. providing immediate transport.

D. gathering medical history data.

airway, breathing, and circulation

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?

Select one:

A. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain

B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion

C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

D. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension

Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:

Select one:

A. before you load the patient into the ambulance.

B. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.

C. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.

D. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.

before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:

Select one:

A. lips or oral mucosa.

B. dorsum of the hand.

C. forehead and face.

D. back of the neck.

lips or oral mucosa

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

A. the patient's response to your treatment.

B. the nature of any newly identified problems.

C. the reason why the patient called EMS.

D. whether or not the patient is deteriorating.

the reason why the patient called EMS

The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:

Select one:

A. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.

B. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.

C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.

D. most life-threatening condition that you discover.

most serious thing the patient is concerned about

The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than:

Select one:

A. 60 to 90 seconds.

B. 120 to 180 seconds.

C. 90 to 120 seconds.

D. 30 seconds.

60 to 90 seconds

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:

Select one:

A. the number of patients is known.

B. area hospitals have been notified.

C. all the patients have been triaged.

D. a physician arrives at the scene.

all the patients have been triaged

What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?

Select one:

A. Tongue-jaw lift

B. Jaw-thrust maneuver

C. Head tilt-neck lift

D. Head tilt-chin lift

Jaw-thrust maneuver

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:

Select one:

A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.

B. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.

C. assess his mental status by having him move his head.

D. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head.

ensure that the patient can see you approaching him

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:

Select one:

A. become larger.

B. become smaller.

C. dilate.

D. not react.

become smaller

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?

Select one:

A. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status

B. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel

C. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle

D. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog

Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?

Select one:

A. Drug overdose

B. Inadequate perfusion

C. Acute anxiety

D. Poisoning

Acute anxiety

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?

Select one:

A. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears

B. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness

C. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

D. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea

A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?

Select one:

A. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI.

B. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.

C. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

D. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.

The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?

Select one:

A. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

B. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.

C. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.

D. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition.

The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:

Select one:

A. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

B. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.

C. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.

D. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she:

Select one:

A. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

B. has an increased heart rate and retractions.

C. is restless and is working hard to breathe.

D. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.

has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:

Select one:

A. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block.

B. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.

C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.

D. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.

remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx

A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?

Select one:

A. Increased body temperature

B. Severe pulmonary edema

C. Carbon monoxide poisoning

D. His extremities are cold

Carbon monoxide poisoning

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:

Select one:

A. nonrebreathing mask.

B. nasal cannula.

C. bag-valve mask.

D. mouth-to-mask device.

nonrebreathing mask

During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates:

Select one:

A. secretions in the airway.

B. a lower airway obstruction.

C. swelling of the upper airway.

D. fluid in the alveoli.

a lower airway obstruction

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems?

Select one:

A. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.

B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung.

C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion.

D. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.

It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?

Select one:

A. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed

B. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree

C. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet

D. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

Select one:

A. eupneic respirations.

B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

C. ataxic respirations.

D. agonal respirations.

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:

Select one:

A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly.

B. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest.

C. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex.

D. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex

can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:

Select one:

A. diffusion.

B. oxygenation.

C. ventilation.

D. respiration.

ventilation

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?

Select one:

A. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations.

B. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate.

C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:

Select one:

A. 100 mm Hg.

B. 400 mm Hg.

C. 300 mm Hg.

D. 200 mm Hg.

300 mm Hg

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?

Select one:

A. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

B. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult

C. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag

D. Consistently increasing heart rate

Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?

Select one:

A. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations

B. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

C. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

D. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?

Select one:

A. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume

B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing

C. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations

D. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations

A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?

Select one:

A. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

B. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.

C. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.

D. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.

Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?

Select one:

A. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.

B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.

C. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.

D. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?

Select one:

A. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.

B. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.

C. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.

D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.

Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?

Select one:

A. Bronchus

B. Oropharynx

C. Pharynx

D. Larynx

Bronchus

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?

Select one:

A. 65%

B. 55%

C. 45%

D. 75%

55%

You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should:

Select one:

A. ventilate with less pressure.

B. seal the mouth and nose.

C. thrust the jaw forward.

D. thoroughly suction the stoma.

seal the mouth and nose

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:

Select one:

A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.

B. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

C. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current.

D. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

reassess the patient and document her response to the medication

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should:

Select one:

A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure.

B. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.

C. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit.

D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg

assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg

Activated charcoal is an example of a(n):

Select one:

A. elixir.

B. suspension.

C. solution.

D. gel.

suspension

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication:

Select one:

A. acetaminophen.

B. aspirin.

C. nitrostat.

D. ibuprofen.

ibuprofen

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n):

Select one:

A. untoward effect.

B. unpredictable effect.

C. side effect.

D. therapeutic effect.

side effect

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.

Select one:

A. patient-assisted

B. peer-assisted

C. EMT-administered

D. paramedic-administered

peer-assisted

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called:

Select one:

A. pills.

B. caplets.

C. capsules.

D. tablets.

capsules

The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________.

Select one:

A. indication

B. side effect

C. contraindication

D. dose

dose

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called:

Select one:

A. digestion.

B. suspension.

C. adsorption.

D. absorption.

adsorption

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as:

Select one:

A. the study of how medications affect the brain.

B. the study of drugs that are produced illegally.

C. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.

D. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

the study of drugs and their actions on the body

What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector?

Select one:

A. Intravenous

B. Intraosseous

C. Intramuscular

D. Sublingual

Intramuscular

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:

Select one:

A. cardiovascular disease.

B. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

C. reactive airway disease.

D. bacterial infection.

cardiovascular disease