Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli Identification

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Last updated 3:03 PM on 10/11/26
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57 Terms

1
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What are the three main genera of aerobic Gram-positive bacilli?

Bacillus, Corynebacterium, and Nocardia.

2
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What is the characteristic shape of Bacillus bacteria?

Large rods in long chains.

3
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Describe the arrangement of Corynebacterium cells.

They appear in palisades and V shapes, resembling Chinese letters.

4
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What type of pathogens are most Corynebacterium species?

They are animal and human pathogens, as well as saprophytes and plant pathogens.

5
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Which Corynebacterium species is the most significant pathogen?

Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

6
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What is a diphtheroid?

Any rod that resembles Corynebacterium diphtheriae, especially in shape.

7
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What medium enhances the growth of C. diphtheriae?

Loeffler serum medium.

8
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What is the primary cause of respiratory diphtheria?

The diphtheria toxin produced by lysogenized strains of C. diphtheriae.

<p>The diphtheria toxin produced by lysogenized strains of C. diphtheriae.</p>
9
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How is respiratory diphtheria transmitted?

By droplets or hand-to-mouth contact.

10
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What are the symptoms of respiratory diphtheria?

Low-grade fever, malaise, mild sore throat, and a tough white to gray pseudomembrane.

11
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What is the treatment for diphtheria?

Antitoxin plus IM penicillin or oral erythromycin for 7 to 10 days.

12
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What is the significance of the Elek plate in diphtheria diagnosis?

It tests for the presence of diphtheria toxin by showing precipitin lines.

13
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What are the key characteristics of Listeria monocytogenes?

Short gram-positive, non-spore-forming rods that can appear as cocci.

14
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At what temperature can Listeria monocytogenes grow?

At 4°C, allowing it to thrive in refrigerated foods.

<p>At 4°C, allowing it to thrive in refrigerated foods.</p>
15
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What virulence factor does Listeria monocytogenes produce?

Listeriolysin O, which damages phagocytic membranes.

16
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What is the CAMP test used for?

To identify Listeria monocytogenes by observing enhanced lysis in an arrowhead zone.

17
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What are the common sources of Listeria infection?

Refrigerated dairy products and processed meats.

18
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What is a distinguishing feature of Listeria monocytogenes in culture?

It shows narrow zones of beta hemolysis on blood agar.

19
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What is the motility characteristic of Listeria monocytogenes?

It exhibits tumbling motility at room temperature.

20
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What test differentiates Listeria monocytogenes from group B streptococci?

The catalase test; Listeria is catalase positive.

21
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What is the appearance of Listeria monocytogenes in direct smears?

Short gram-positive rods.

22
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What is the incubation period for respiratory diphtheria?

2 to 4 days.

23
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What is the role of the tox gene in C. diphtheriae?

It is responsible for the production of diphtheria toxin.

24
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What type of agar is used to selectively culture C. diphtheriae?

Cystine-tellurite blood agar.

<p>Cystine-tellurite blood agar.</p>
25
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What does a brown halo indicate on cystine-tellurite blood agar?

It indicates the presence of C. diphtheriae.

26
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What are the symptoms of cutaneous diphtheria?

Nonhealing ulcers covered by a dirty gray membrane.

27
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What is the significance of urease testing in identifying Corynebacteria?

It helps differentiate C. diphtheriae (urease negative) from C. ulcerans and C. pseudotuberculosis (urease positive).

28
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What is Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae commonly associated with?

Occupational exposure in fish handlers, meat packers, and others who handle animal products.

29
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What is the clinical form of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae characterized by a painful, red, swollen skin infection?

Erysipeloid.

30
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What is the treatment of choice for Erysipelothrix infections?

Penicillin.

31
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What are the microscopic characteristics of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?

Thin gram-positive rods that may stain gram-variable and can form long filaments.

32
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How does Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae grow in culture?

Needs CO2, grows on SBA or chocolate agar, with pinpoint colonies at 24 hours.

33
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What key test is positive for Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?

H2S positive on TSI.

34
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What is the reverse CAMP test associated with?

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum, which inhibits the S. aureus beta-lysin zone.

35
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What is the primary clinical manifestation of Arcanobacterium haemolyticum?

Pharyngitis in patients aged 10 to 20 years.

36
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What type of colonies does Arcanobacterium haemolyticum produce on SBA?

Small colonies with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis.

37
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What is Gardnerella vaginalis associated with?

Bacterial vaginosis, characterized by malodorous discharge and elevated vaginal pH.

38
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What are clue cells in the context of Gardnerella vaginalis infection?

Epithelial cells with coccobacilli clustered on their edges.

<p>Epithelial cells with coccobacilli clustered on their edges.</p>
39
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What is the medium of choice for culturing Gardnerella vaginalis?

Human blood bilayer Tween (HBT) agar.

40
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What are the general characteristics of Nocardia?

Aerobic, thin, branching filaments that are gram-positive and beaded.

41
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What is the mortality rate associated with nocardiosis?

About 40 percent, mostly in immunocompromised hosts.

42
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What distinguishes Bacillus anthracis from other Bacillus species?

It has a capsule of poly-D-glutamic acid and three toxin proteins.

43
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What are the four ways Bacillus anthracis can enter the body?

Cutaneous, inhalation, injection, and gastrointestinal routes.

44
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What is the appearance of Bacillus anthracis colonies on sheep blood agar?

Large, raised, grayish-white colonies with irregular, fingerlike edges (medusa head).

45
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What is the primary treatment for Bacillus anthracis infection?

IV ciprofloxacin or doxycycline until susceptibilities are known.

46
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What are the two syndromes associated with Bacillus cereus food poisoning?

Emetic syndrome (nausea and vomiting) and diarrheal syndrome (cramps and diarrhea).

47
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What type of colonies does Bacillus cereus produce?

Beta-hemolytic, frosted glass colonies.

48
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What is the significance of the Nugent scoring system?

It is used to diagnose bacterial vaginosis based on the presence of clue cells.

<p>It is used to diagnose bacterial vaginosis based on the presence of clue cells.</p>
49
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What is the common laboratory characteristic of Nocardia?

Chalky, matte colonies with aerial hyphae.

50
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What distinguishes Listeria monocytogenes from group B Streptococcus?

Listeria is catalase positive, esculin positive, and motile, while group B strep is catalase negative.

51
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What is the typical source of Listeria monocytogenes infection in pregnant women?

Soft cheese and deli meats.

52
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What is the significance of the modified acid-fast stain for Nocardia?

It helps identify partially acid-fast filaments that are characteristic of Nocardia.

53
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What is the treatment for Nocardiosis?

Drainage or surgery plus antimicrobials; resistant to penicillin, susceptible to sulfonamides.

54
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What is the appearance of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae in culture after 48 hours?

Small, smooth, glistening colonies or larger, rough, flat, matte colonies with irregular edges.

55
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What is a common complication of Listeria monocytogenes infection during pregnancy?

Septic abortion or early-onset neonatal sepsis.

56
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What type of infections can Trueperella species cause?

Bacteremia, wound infections, UTIs, and septic arthritis.

57
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What is the primary laboratory characteristic that separates Arcanobacterium from other bacteria?

It is catalase negative and exhibits reverse CAMP reaction.