BB 9: AIHA

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Last updated 4:33 PM on 7/12/26
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94 Terms

1
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for immune hemolytic anemias, the DAT will always have a ____ result.

positive

2
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retic count ____ in both compensated and uncompensated anemia.

increase

3
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compensated or uncompensated anemia: macrocytosis and spherocytosis?

uncompensated

4
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for warm autoimmune disease, the DAT is usually positive for ____ only, but C3d may also be present.

IgG

5
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a DHTR can cause a positive ____ DAT.

IgG

6
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for cold autoimmune disease, the DAT is usually positive for only ____.

C3d

7
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which category of immune hemolytic anemia describes the following:

  • HTR

  • HDFN


alloimmune

8
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which category of immune hemolytic anemia describes the following:

  • CAIHA (20-30%)

    • benign

    • pathological (CAD/CHD and PCH)

  • WAIHA (70-80%)

  • mixed type - both warm and cold auto Abs present (7-8%)


autoimmune

9
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which category of immune hemolytic anemia describes the following:

  • drug absorption

  • immune complex

  • membrane modification

  • warm auto-Ab (alpha-methyldopa [aldomet], daratumumab)


drug induced

10
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to differentiate auto Abs and allo Abs, perform ____ techniques.

adsorption

11
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which adsorption technique is described below:

  • no recent transfusion (within the last months) or BM transplant

  • auto Abs are removed using patient RBCs, so allo Abs can be identified

  • after the patient’s RBC are incubated, the adsorbed serum is tested with panel cells to ID the allo Ab (if present)


autoadsorption

12
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allogenic adsorption may also be referred to as ____ adsorption.

differential

13
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which adsorption technique is described below:

  • if recently transfused

  • use selected cell types with patient’s serum

    • R1R1, R2R2, rr

    • plus one K-, one Jka-, and one Jkb-


differential

14
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benign or pathological Abs: thermal reactivity range of <20-24C?

benign

15
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benign or pathological Abs: thermal reactivity range of <30C?

pathological

16
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benign or pathological Abs: titer @4C <64?

benign

17
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benign or pathological Abs: titer @4C >1000?

pathological

18
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benign or pathological Abs: common specificity anti-I or anti-IH?

benign

19
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benign or pathological Abs: common specificity anti-I?

pathological

20
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benign or pathological Abs: capable of binding C3 in vitro with a DAT grading of 0-1+ due to C3?

benign

21
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benign or pathological Abs: capable of binding C3 in vivo with a DAT grading of 2-4+ due to C3?

pathological

22
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what is the most common type associated with cold reactive auto Abs?

CAD

23
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which form of CAD is secondary to lymphoproliferative diseases or Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections?

acute

24
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which form of CAD is seen in elderly and may result in Raynaud’s Disease/Syndrome and hemoglobinuria if exposed to extreme cold temperature?

chronic

25
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what condition is often characterized by RT agglutination of EDTA cells to the extent the sample appears clotted, if Ab is high titered?

CAD

26
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what refers to typical signs of discolored fingers and bluish finger tips?

Raynaud’s syndrome

27
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for individuals with CAIHA/CAD/CHD, the ____ AHG reagent should be used because the antibody is usually IgM.

monospecific

28
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elution is required for DAT for individuals with CAIHA/CAD/CHD. true or false?

false

29
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elution is not required for DAT for individuals with CAIHA/CAD/CHD because there is no ____ present.

IgG

30
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cold auto-adsorption test cannot be performed on recently transfused patients. true or false?

true

31
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____ antibodies include:

  • anti-I usually

  • anti-i sometimes

  • anti-Pr rarely


CAD

32
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what is the least common AIHA?

PCH

33
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____ occurs most often in young children with viral infection.

PCH

34
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____ is originally seen in adults with tertiary syphilis, but it is now rarely seen since syphilis is treatable.

PCH

35
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the PCH antibody is ____ with anti-P specificity, biphasic hemolysin.

IgG

36
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the antibody for the condition ____ is also known as the Donath-Landsteiner Ab.

PCH

37
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PCH has the auto Ab is IgG which acts as a cold agglutinin and has ____ specificity.

anti-P

38
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in the condition ____, the Ab is a biphasic hemolysin where IgG Ab binds in the cold and fixes C’ while at warm temperatures, IgG dissociates and C’ remains so only C’ is detected.

PCH

39
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it is not necessary to transfuse P negative for PCH patients. true or false?

true

40
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the eluate result for PCH is ____ since C’ coat cells.

negative

41
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what AIHA is the most common type and most difficult problem encountered in the transfusion service?

WAIHA

42
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warm or cold auto: splenomegaly?

warm

43
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warm or cold auto: hepatomegaly?

warm

44
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warm or cold auto: adenopathy?

warm

45
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warm or cold auto: no organomegaly?

cold

46
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warm or cold auto: IgG present with small amount of C3 potentially be present?

warm

47
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warm or cold auto: acrocyanosis and raynaud’s syndrome?

cold

48
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a common scenario of ____ is that all cells in the ABS and Ab ID panel including to autocontrol are positive at the AHG phase.

WAIHA

49
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____ auto Abs react best with LISS, PEG, and enzymes.

warm

50
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for WAIHA, to determine if DAT is + due to an allo Ab, auto Ab, or drug induced, perform ____ studies.

elution

51
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____ elution refers to the suspension of autologous cells in albumin or saline with constant agitation of the sample at 56C water bath for approximately 10min.

mechanical

52
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what is the common reagent used for elution procedure for WAIHA?

ZZAP

53
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what reagent that contains Dithiothreitol (DTT), a sulfhydryl reagent, and proteolytic enzyme (e.g., ficin or papain)?

ZZAP

54
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what reagent dissociates both IgG and C’ from RBCs so phenotyping is allowed to be accomplished and can enhance adsorption properties of the RBC?

ZZAP

55
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a warm auto adsorption can be performed if the patient was transfused over three months ago. true or false?

true

56
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____ adsorption for WAIHA should be performed under these conditions:

  • if patient’s RBCs are not available for auto adsorption

  • if the patient has been transfused recently

  • if the patient’s pre-transfusion RBCs are not available for auto adsorption


allogenic

57
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the following cells are used for ____ adsorption for WAIHA:

  • R1R1

  • R2R2

  • rr

  • one cell K negative

  • one cell Jka negative

  • another cell Jkb negative

  • use ZZAP to denature other important antigens


allogenic

58
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it is best to avoid transfusing a ____ individual when they are asymptomatic.

WAIHA

59
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____ auto antibodies refers to a combination of cold and warm autoimmune Abs.

mixed

60
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the DAT for ____ auto antibodies will detect both IgG and C3d.

mixed

61
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for drug induced immune hemolytic anemia, a classic result for eluate testing is no reactivity is seen. true or false?

true

62
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the following are the 4 theoretical mechanisms for ____ immune hemolytic anemia:

  • drug adsorption (HAPTEN)

  • immune complex formation (innocent bystander)

  • membrane modification (nonimmunologic protein adsorption) NON IMMUNE = STICKY

  • autoantibody production (WAIHA-like)


drug induced

63
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drug induced hemolytic anemia by drug adsorption may be caused by the drug ____

  • drug + RBCs → drug-RBC → stimulates production of anti-drug-RBC

  • anti-drug-drug-RBC complex + C’ → lysis

  • DAT is often negative (Abs are IgM)


penicillin

64
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drug induced hemolytic anemia by immune complex (innocent bystander) may be caused by the drug ____

  • antibody to drug + drug → complex + C’ → RBC lysis

  • positive DAT with polyspecific AHG


quinidine

65
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drug induced hemolytic anemia by membrane modification (nonimmune protein adsorption) may be caused by the drug ____

  • drug + RBC → membrane changes → nonspecific adsorption of proteins to RBCs (sensitized) → RBCs destroyed by spleen

  • positive DAT


cephalosporins

66
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drug induced hemolytic anemia by auto IgG Ab formation (mimics WAIHA) may be caused by the drug ____

  • certain prescription drugs can cause the formation of a warm auto Ab

  • mechanism is unknown

  • other drugs may alter T cell function

  • positive DAT (polyspecific and IgG)


aldomet

67
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the following describes the mechanism of ____ for drug induced hemolytic anemia:

  • drug adsorbed onto RBC in vivo and becomes a hapten

  • if patient develops Abs to penicillin, they will bind to penicillin on RBC

  • hemolysis occurs extravascularly


drug adsorption

68
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the following drugs are ____ forming:

  • penicillin

  • methicillin

  • nafcillin

  • tetracycline

  • erythromycin

  • cephalothin

  • carbromal

  • cefazolin

  • cefamandole


hapten

69
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the following describes ____ formation:

  • drug binds with Ab in vivo in the plasma

  • → immune drug Ab complex binds to RBC and initiates C’ activation

  • → leads to intravascular hemolysis

  • → after RBC hemolyzed, drug antibody complex dissociates and attaches to new RBC

  • → small amounts of drug can result in acute hemolysis


immune complex

70
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____ (synthetic penicillin), second- and third- generation cephalosporins, and anti-ceftriaxone have been implicated.

piperacillin

71
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the following are the classic drugs that cause ____ formation:

  • quinine

  • quinidine

  • cephalosporins


immune complex

72
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the following are other drugs that cause ____ formation:

  • acetaminophen

  • hydralazine

  • methotrexate


immune complex

73
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which drug induced hemolytic anemia mechanism is associated with the following:

  • the modification causes RBC membrane to adsorb proteins (albumin IgA, IgG, IgM, and C’ components) in a non-specific and non-immunologic manner

    • RBC membrane becomes sticky

  • eluates are nonreactive because there is no drug Ab present


membrane modification

74
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the follow drugs (anti-neoplastic agents) may cause ____ of RBCs:

  • cephalothin

  • cisplatin

  • diglycoaldehyde

  • suramin


membrane modification

75
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what drug refers to an anti cancer drug (monoclonal Ab)?

daratumumab

76
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what drug refers to an anti-hypertensive drug that interferes with suppressor T cell function that leads to elaboration of auto Abs by B cells?

alpha methyldopa

77
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what is another term for alpha methyldopa?

aldomet

78
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levodopa is an anti-____ drug.

hypertensive

79
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what drug refers to a cardiac arrhythmic drug?

procainamide

80
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what drug refers to a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug?

mefenamic acid

81
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what drug alters the function of T suppressor cells, thereby, upsetting the immune system and allowing the production of auto antibodies?

aldomet

82
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quinidine and phenacetin are associated with which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies?

immune complex

83
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quinidine and phenacetin are associated with which Ig class?

IgM or IgG

84
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penicillins, streptomycin, and cephalosporin are associated with which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies?

drug adsorption

85
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penicillins, streptomycin, and cephalosporin are associated with which Ig class?

IgG

86
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cephalosporins (alone) are associated with which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies?

membrane modification

87
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cephalosporins are associated with which Ig class?

many plasma proteins

88
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aldomet isassociated with which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies?

methyldopa induced

89
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aldomet is associated with which Ig class?

IgG

90
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which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies have a positive eluate result due to warm auto antibodies identical to those found in WAIHA?

methyldopa induced

91
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which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies often causes acute intravascular hemolysis?

immune complex

92
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which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies often causes extravascular hemolysis?

drug adsorption

93
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which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies develops no hemolysis?

membrane modification

94
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which mechanism that leads to the development of drug related antibodies have 0-8% of patients develop a hemolytic anemia that mimics a warm AIHA?

methyldopa induced