Week 8: Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

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101 Terms

1
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where do the antibodies that cause HDN come from?

IgG from mother that crosses placenta

2
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for a baby to have HDN, the antigen must come from the _______________

father

3
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when a baby’s RBCs are destroyed by the reticuloendothelial system, what type of RBC increases?

production of RBCs → nucleated RBCs

4
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fast hemolysis in the baby causes an increase in ______________

bilirubin

5
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before birth, fetal bilirubin is excreted how?

maternal liver

6
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after birth, what happens to fetal bilirubin?

the newborn liver cannot conjugate such large amounts of bilirubin

7
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unconjugated bilirubin is toxic to the _____

CNS

8
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brain damage in babies due to unconjugated bilirubin is called what?

kernicterus

9
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what is the greatest danger to the fetus while still in utero?

anemia

10
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what is the greatest danger to the newborn (after birth)?

unconjugated bilirubin

11
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the most severe HDN is associated with which antibodies?

  • anti-D

  • anti-K

  • anti-c


12
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what are other antibodies associated with HDN?

  • anti-E

  • anti-C

  • anti-e

  • anti-Fya

  • anti-Fyb

  • anti-Jka

  • anti-Jkb

  • anti-S


13
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mild HDN can be caused by ABO antibodies, most commonly IgG _________

anti-A,B

14
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what prenatal studies are done?

  • ABO grouping and RH typing

  • antibody screen

    • if positive → antibody ID performed


15
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the presence of antibodies does not necessarily mean _______ will occur

HDN

16
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the baby must have the corresponding ____________ for HDN to occur

antigen

17
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the ___________ is phenotyped for the likelihood of the baby being positive for an antigen

father

18
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if the father is negative for the antigen associated with the antibody, what is the chance the baby will have HDN?

0%

19
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if the father is heterozygous for the antigen associated with the antibody, what is the chance the baby will have HDN?

50%

20
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if the father is homozygous for the antigen associated with the antibody, what is the chance the baby will have HDN?

100%

21
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an antibody ________ is done for any clinically significant antibodies detected

titer

22
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an antibody titer helps clinicians decide to do more invasive procedures like what?

  • amniotic fluid analysis

  • intrauterine transfusions


23
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serum is ________________ to determine the titer of an antibody

serially diluted

24
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what is a titer?

the highest dilution at which agglutination occurs

25
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the current titer is run in parallel with what?

previous frozen sample

26
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an ___________ in titer could indicate HDN

increase

27
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what does amniocentesis measure?

the level of bilirubin in the amniotic fluid

28
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_______________ can help in the prediction of severity of fetal anemia

amniocentesis

29
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method of amniocentesis

bilirubin is measured spectrophotometrically and correlates with degree of fetal anemia

30
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cordocentesis is also known as what?

percutaneous umbilical blood sampling

31
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purpose of cordocentesis

fetal blood sample is drawn to test for hematocrit and phenotype to tell severity of HDN

32
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intrauterine transfusion

  • done for severe fetal anemia

  • gives fetus RBCs

  • transfused through fetus’s abdomen or umbilical cord vein


33
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in an intrauterine transfusion, the transfused cells must be compatible with what?

maternal antibodies

34
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the blood used for intrauterine transfusions is the ____________ unit available

freshest

35
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the blood used for intrauterine transfusions is usually no older than ________ after collection

5 days

36
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what ABO type of blood is used for intrauterine transfusions

O negative

37
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the blood used for intrauterine transfusions should be negative for what?

  • antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies

  • CMV

  • hemoglobin S


38
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is the blood used for intrauterine transfusions irradiated and plasma reduced?

yes

39
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which anticoagulant is used with blood for intrauterine transfusions?

citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD) (no additive solutions)

40
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if a unit for an intrauterine transfusion has __________________, it must be washed

additive

41
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the blood used for intrauterine transfusions must be crossmatch compatible at _____ with maternal serum

AHG

42
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newborns with the following should have what obtained from them?

  • type O mothers

  • mothers with allo-antibodies

  • Rh negative mothers


cord blood

43
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with ABO group cord blood testing, only the _________ type can be performed

forward

44
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newborns do not develop antibodies until _____________ old

4-6 months

45
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any ABO antibodies present in cord blood samples are from the __________

mother

46
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does the strength of DAT correlate with the severity of HDN?

no

47
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HDN due to ABO incompatibilities typically have ______ DAT reactions

weak

48
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stronger positive DAT found in HDN are due to which non-ABO group antibodies?

  • anti-D

  • anti-K

  • anti-c


49
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ABO HDN can occur when?

in any pregnancy

50
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when is ABO HDN most commonly seen?

O mother and A or B newborn

51
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in HDN due to a low incidence antibody, the corresponding antigen may not be present on the ______________

screening cells

52
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with a low incidence antibody causing HDN, the mother will likely have a ____________ antibody screen

negative

53
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in HDN due to a low incidence antigen, how would the eluate from the newborn react against newborn and paternal RBCs?

positive reaction

54
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what is wharton’s jelly?

gelatinous substance within umbilical cord

55
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what issue can wharton’s jelly cause?

false positive reactions in cord blood testing

56
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why should the forward type be washed several times during cord blood testing?

to get rid of wharton’s jelly

57
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following an intrauterine transfusion, the recipient circulating blood could contain up to ______ donor cells

90%

58
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what type of typing reactions can result from intrauterine transfusions?

  • weak

  • mixed field

  • could type as donor cells (O-)


59
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after an intrauterine transfusion, you will have to wait for what?

for the donor cells to be removed from the patient’s system to know the true blood type

60
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in cord blood testing the newborn’s cells can be coated with _____

IgG

61
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since newborn’s cells may have a strong positive DAT, when cord blood is tested with antisera…

there is reduced or no place for the antibodies to bind → false negative

62
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blocked D

when maternal anti-D coat Rh positive newborn cells, and the anti-D reagent has no where to bind → false negative

63
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resolution of blocked D

  • gentle heat elution to remove maternal anti-D

  • cord RBCs can be retested with anti-D reagent


64
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exchange transfusion

  • for severe HDN

  • removes aliquots of neonatal blood and replaces with donor blood


65
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what does exchange transfusion accomplish?

  • lowers bilirubin

  • removes antibody-coated RBCs

  • lowers maternal antibody concentration in newborn

  • maintains sufficient blood volume in baby


66
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characteristics of blood used for exchange transfusion in newborns

  • freshest available (< 5 days)

  • O type

  • negative for antigens targeted by maternal antibodies

  • RBCs re-suspended in AB plasma

  • CMV negative

  • Hgb S negative

  • irradiated

  • XM compatible at AHG with mother


67
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infant _________ or __________ can be used if maternal serum is unavailable for crossmatching for exchange transfusion

eluate, serum

68
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RhoGAM

common brand of Rh immune globulin

69
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Rh immune globulin

contains mostly IgG anti-D pooled from human plasma

70
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why is Rh immune globulin used?

to prevent Rh - mothers from developing anti-D by blocking the immune system from recognizing foreign D antigen from a baby

71
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Rh immune globulin is important in preventing HDN in __________ pregnancies

future

72
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when is Rh immune globulin given?

  • Rh negative women coming in contact with Rh positive RBCs

  • Rh negative women is pregnant


73
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Rh immune globulin must be given to Rh - pregnant women within _______ of bleeding events like abortions, miscarriage, amniocentesis, or antepartum hemorrhage

72 hours

74
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a preventative dose of Rh immune globulin is given at the __________ of gestation

28th week

75
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Rh immune globulin must be given within __________ of giving birth to an Rh positive newborn

72 hours

76
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when a mother receives RhIG during pregnancy, the neonate may have a positive _______

DAT

77
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does RhIG cause hemolysis in the baby?

no, the DAT is a weak positive

78
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RhIG can still be present and cause a positive ________________ at the time of delivery, staying detectable up to _______________

antibody screen, 3-4 months

79
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what testing is performed prior to the administration of RhIG?

  • ABORh type

  • antibody screen and identification


80
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RhIG is given to which types of women?

  • Rh negative

  • partial D


81
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why is an antibody screen and ID done prior to giving RhIG?

to see if a woman has already developed anti-D

82
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should the following women receive RhIG?

  • Rh negative and pregnant with abortion, miscarriage, amniocentesis

  • Rh negative at 28th week of gestation

  • Rh negative who give birth to Rh positive babies

  • partial D mutation


yes

83
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should the following women receive RhIG?

  • Rh positive

  • Rh negative with anti-D

  • Rh negative who give birth to Rh negative babies


no

84
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a full dose of RhIG protects against _______ of Rh positive packed RBCs

15mL

85
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antepartum administration of RhIG is typically how much?

1 dose

86
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postpartum administration of RhIG is typically how much?

number of doses depends on presence and volume of fetal blood cells in maternal circulation

87
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a fetal blood screen determines if there is any ____________ fetal blood in the Rh negative mother

Rh positive

88
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how is a fetal blood screen test done?

  • anti-D is added to postpartum maternal sample to coat any Rh positive fetal RBCs present

  • enzyme-treated Rh positive RBCs are added

  • clumps form around Rh positive fetal cells


89
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the fetal blood screen is also called what?

rosette test

90
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a negative result for a fetal blood screen requires how much RhIG?

1 dose

91
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what is FMH?

fetal maternal hemorrhage

92
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a positive result for a fetal blood test requires what

a quantitative test to determine the dose

93
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a positive result for a fetal blood screen detects ______ > 10 mL

FMH

94
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Kleihauer-Betke test

  • quantifies FMH

  • maternal blood treated with acid

  • gives % of fetal cells in maternal blood


95
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in the kleihauer-betke test, fetal cells have higher _______ and are more resistant to acid elution

HGB F

96
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in the kleihauer-betke test, fetal cells appear how?

intact and red

97
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what is the formula for the KB test?

(% fetal cells * 50 mL) / 30 mL

98
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% fetal cells * 50 gives what value?

the volume of fetal cells in maternal circulation

99
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1 dose of RhIG protects against _______ of blood

30 mL

100
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an extra vial of ________ is given for safety

RhIG