IFR Oral Flashcards (stage 2)

What is the maximum holding speed authorized for civil aircraft above 14,000 feet MSL?

265 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).

Why are Baro-VNAV approaches subject to cold temperature limitations?

Cold ambient temperatures cause barometric altimeters to indicate higher altitudes than actual, lowering the aircraft flight path relative to terrain.

What is the allowable distance tolerance when executing a DME arc procedure on a Stage 2 check ride? Altitude?

A distance maintained within ± 1 NM of the published arc radius.

± 100 feet

During a Stage 2 flight check, what is the maximum allowable altitude deviation on initial and intermediate approach segments?

An altitude deviation within ± 150 feet.

How does a Charted Visual Flight Procedure (CVFP) differ from a standard visual approach?

CVFPs are published visual approach procedures with defined flight paths and visual landmarks to a specific runway.

What is the maximum bearing error permitted during an airborne VOR checkpoint check?

An error limit of ± 6°.

What is the maximum descent gradient permitted on the final approach segment of a straight-in RNAV approach?

A maximum descent gradient of 400 feet per nautical mile is permitted.

What avionics equipment typically provides vertical guidance for aircraft flying to LNAV/VNAV minimums?

Approach-certified Baro-VNAV or WAAS equipment.

What is the maximum holding speed authorized for civil aircraft up to 6,000 feet MSL?

200 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).

Where on an approach chart are Baro-VNAV cold-temperature operational limits listed?

In the briefing strip notes section of the approach chart.

What approach title abbreviation denotes simultaneous close parallel independent operations to runways spaced less than 4,300 feet apart?

The identifier "PRM" (Precision Runway Monitor) in the approach title.

What authorization is required prior to entering controlled airspace under IFR?

An explicit ATC clearance specifying route, altitude, and clearance limit.

What standard boundary radius defines a Terminal Arrival Area volume of airspace around an IAF?

A 30 NM arc boundary centered on the appropriate IAF.

What capability and accuracy level does the LPV minima line offer on an RNAV (GPS) approach chart?

It provides APV minimums requiring WAAS avionics, offering localizer-like lateral accuracy and electronic vertical guidance.

What is the standard outbound timing for a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL?

1.5 minutes outbound.

What standard RNP value applies to the final approach segment of an RNP approach?

RNP 0.3.

What defines Low, Close-In Obstacles in published departure procedure data?

Obstacles within 1 NM of the runway end requiring climb gradients exceeding standard rate for short durations.

Where should a pilot switch navigation facility frequencies on an airway if no Changeover Point (COP) is charted?

At the geographic midpoint of the airway segment.

What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA) departure procedure?

A procedure allowing an IFR aircraft to climb visually over an airport to a specified altitude before proceeding en route.

What defines an Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV)?

An instrument approach providing course and glidepath guidance that does not meet precision approach standards.

Under Part 91, what IFR alternate weather requirements apply if an airport lacks a published instrument approach procedure?

Ceiling and visibility allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under VFR.

What is the maximum airspeed deviation permitted on the final approach segment during a Stage 2 check performance?

An airspeed deviation within ± 10 knots.

What instrument system measures specific runway visibility using transmissometers alongside the runway path?

Runway Visual Range (RVR).

What standard revision cycle frequency governs updates to airborne navigation databases?

A standard 28-day AIRAC revision cycle.

What primary operational benefit does Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) integration provide for GPS approaches?

It provides precise vertical guidance enabling LPV approach minima as low as 200 feet HAT without local ground equipment.

What standard RNP value applies to terminal area navigation procedures?

RNP 1.0.

What does Minimum En Route Altitude (MEA) guarantee along a published airway?

Acceptable navigational signal coverage and obstacle clearance along the entire segment.

What ground-based augmentation system provides high-accuracy differential GPS corrections within a 20 to 30 mile radius of an airport?

The Ground-Based Augmentation System (GBAS), formerly known as LAAS.

What is the main distinction between a SID and an ODP?

SIDs are designed primarily for ATC traffic efficiency, whereas ODPs are designed specifically for obstacle clearance.

What is a Contact Approach?

An approach requested by the pilot requiring at least 1 SM clear-of-clouds flight visibility and visual surface reference.

What is the primary operational purpose of a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?

To simplify ATC clearance delivery and facilitate efficient traffic flow out of terminal areas.

What visual indication in an approach chart profile view marks the Missed Approach Point for non-precision procedures?

The termination of the solid final approach course line and start of the dotted missed approach line.

What runway spacing and ATC staffing conditions define Simultaneous Independent Approaches?

Runway centerlines spaced 4,300 feet or greater with dedicated final monitor controllers assigned.

What does a "NoPT" annotation indicate on a Terminal Arrival Area sector chart?

Course reversal (procedure turn) is prohibited when arriving from that specific sector.

What altitude tolerance must be maintained relative to MDA or DA on final approach during a Stage 2 check evaluation?

An altitude maintained between +100 feet and -0 feet of the MDA or DA.

What is the definition of Prevailing Visibility?

The greatest horizontal visibility equaled or exceeded throughout at least half the horizon circle.

What specific checks must be performed on flight instruments during taxi prior to IFR takeoff?

Verify turn indicator functionality, zero airspeed, altimeter within ± 75 feet of field elevation, and stable compass heading.

What weather conditions are required under standard IFR alternate rules for a non-precision approach?

A minimum 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility at the estimated time of arrival.

What weather conditions are required under standard IFR alternate rules for a precision approach?

A minimum 600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility at the estimated time of arrival.

In a "Basic T" TAA procedure, what dual role does the central fix serve?

It acts as both the Intermediate Fix (IF) and an Initial Approach Fix (IAF) for straight-in arrivals.

What altitude ensures acceptable navigation signal reception from off-course NAVAIDs establishing a fix?

Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA).

What is the maximum airspeed limit authorized on the final approach segment for a "Copter" Point-in-Space (PinS) approach?

70 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).

What is the optimum distance between a Point-in-Space (PinS) MAP and the destination heliport?

0.65 nautical miles.

What action must a pilot take if RAIM integrity monitoring is lost prior to reaching the Final Approach Fix?

The pilot must abort the approach and execute a missed approach procedure immediately.

What defines Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?

Navigation accuracy capability that includes onboard performance monitoring and alerting functionality.

What three conditions must be met to descend below the MDA or DA/DH on an instrument approach?

Continuous position to land, required flight visibility, and distinct visual reference of the runway environment.

What is a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)?

The lowest altitude at which a fix must be crossed when proceeding toward a higher MEA.

Under what condition are Circling minimums published on an RNAV (GPS) approach chart?

They are published when straight-in approach minimums cannot be authorized due to alignment or obstacle constraints.

For a non-vertically guided straight-in RNAV (GPS) approach, what is the maximum alignment angle allowed between the final approach course and extended runway centerline?

The final approach course must be aligned within 15° of the extended runway centerline.

What does the abbreviation SOIA represent in parallel instrument approach operations?

Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches.

Where is the Missed Approach Point located for a non-precision VOR or NDB approach when the facility is located on the airport?

At the point where the aircraft passes directly over the NAVAID facility.

How should turns to assigned headings be performed during partial panel operations without a heading indicator?

By making standard-rate turns using timed turn calculations or magnetic compass references.

What defines a Non-Precision Approach (NPA)?

An instrument approach that provides lateral course guidance only, without electronic glidepath guidance.

What is the maximum heading deviation permitted on the final approach segment during a Stage 2 evaluation?

A heading deviation within ± 10°.

What course deviation limit must not be exceeded during final approach tracking on a Stage 2 evaluation?

Course deviation must remain within less than 3/4 scale deflection.

How should the outbound wind correction angle compare to the inbound wind correction angle in a holding pattern?

The outbound wind correction angle should be three times the inbound wind correction angle.

What protection does Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA) guarantee on an IFR airway?

Obstacle clearance along the segment and navigational signal coverage within 22 NM of the VOR.

What is the standard IFR climb gradient required for departure obstacle clearance unless higher gradients are published?

200 feet per nautical mile.

What required items must be included in an ATC report upon encountering unforecast icing or severe weather?

Time, position, altitude, aircraft type, and specific severity/type of weather encounter (PIREP).

What is the maximum holding speed authorized for civil aircraft from 6,001 feet MSL through 14,000 feet MSL?

230 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).

What is an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)?

A published departure procedure providing obstacle clearance without requiring ATC clearance unless vectoring applies.

How does ICAO Annex 10 define a Precision Approach (PA)?

An instrument approach offering course and glidepath deviation information meeting ICAO Annex 10 precision standards.

What is a Changeover Point (COP) on a charted Victor airway?

The location where navigation tracking frequency should be changed from the origin facility to the destination facility.

When flying under partial panel conditions, what pitch instruments are used on final approach?

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

What FMS/GPS softkey function suspends automatic waypoint sequencing during holding or missed approach holding?

The OBS softkey (or SUSPEND function).

What point serves as the center fix for a Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) on a stand-alone GPS approach?

The Missed Approach Waypoint (MAWP).

What is the standard outbound timing for a holding pattern at or below 14,000 feet MSL?

1 minute outbound.

What protection is provided by an Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)?

1,000 feet obstacle clearance in non-mountainous terrain and 2,000 feet in mountainous terrain within a grid sector.

What note on an approach chart restricts aircraft using only DME/DME sensors from conducting an RNAV procedure?

The procedural note "DME/DME RNP-0.3 NA".

What standard geometric layout is used in Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) approach design?

The standard "Basic T" design.

What is the maximum bearing error permitted during a ground VOT accuracy check?

An error limit of ± 4°.

What minimum runway centerline spacing is required for Simultaneous Dependent Approaches without requiring a final monitor controller?

A minimum spacing of 2,500 feet between runway centerlines.

What turn direction is standard in a standard holding pattern?

Right turns.

What is the design status and operational purpose of Localizer Performance (LP) minimums?

They provide non-precision localizer-equivalent lateral accuracy without vertical guidance and are currently being phased out.

What maximum difference between receiver indications is permitted during a dual VOR equipment check?

A maximum difference of 4° between indications.

What weather minimums allow ATC to clear an IFR aircraft for a Visual Approach?

A minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility of 3 statute miles.