HISTOLOGY LE2 COVERAGE

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Last updated 1:19 PM on 10/7/26
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186 Terms

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Sarcolemma

What specialized term describes the plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber together with its external and reticular lamina?

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Sarcoplasmic reticulum

In a skeletal muscle fiber, what specialized smooth ER forms the intracellular Ca²⁺ storage network responsible for excitation-contraction coupling?

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Myofibril

What longitudinal bundle of myofilaments extends throughout a muscle fiber and contains repeating sarcomeres?

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Sarcomere

What is the smallest contractile unit of striated muscle, extending from one Z line to the next?

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Multinucleated syncytium

What cellular organization results when multiple skeletal myoblasts fuse, producing a single muscle fiber containing many peripheral nuclei?

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Endomysium

What delicate connective-tissue layer composed largely of reticular fibers surrounds an individual skeletal muscle fiber?

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Perimysium

What connective-tissue sheath surrounds a skeletal muscle fascicle and carries larger vessels and nerves?

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Epimysium

What dense connective-tissue layer encloses the entire skeletal muscle and is continuous with deeper connective tissues?

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Type I

Which skeletal muscle fiber is small, oxidative, slow-twitch, rich in mitochondria and myoglobin, and highly resistant to fatigue?

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Type IIa

Which skeletal muscle fiber is fast-twitch but retains substantial oxidative capacity, making it relatively fatigue-resistant?

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Type IIb

Which skeletal muscle fiber is large, fast-twitch, predominantly glycolytic, and rapidly fatigued?

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Succinic dehydrogenase / NADH-TR histochemistry

Which histochemical techniques can be used to distinguish skeletal muscle fiber types according to their oxidative activity?

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Myoglobin

During extensive muscle injury such as rhabdomyolysis, which oxygen-binding muscle protein can be released into blood and contribute to acute renal injury?

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A band

Which sarcomere band corresponds to the full length of thick filaments and therefore remains essentially unchanged in length during contraction?

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I band

Which sarcomere region contains thin filaments without overlapping thick filaments and becomes shorter during contraction?

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H band

Which lighter central portion of the A band contains thick filaments without thin-filament overlap and narrows during contraction?

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M line

Which dense structure in the center of the H band organizes and links the thick filaments?

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Z line

Which dense zig-zag structure defines sarcomere boundaries and anchors the thin filaments?

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A band

Which sarcomere region is anisotropic and therefore appears birefringent under polarized light microscopy?

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A stays constant

I shortens

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Tropomyosin

At rest, which actin-associated protein physically covers the myosin-binding sites and prevents cross-bridge formation?

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Troponin C

Which troponin subunit directly binds Ca²⁺ during skeletal and cardiac muscle contraction?

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Troponin T

Which troponin subunit binds the troponin complex to tropomyosin?

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Troponin I

Which troponin subunit inhibits actin-myosin interaction when intracellular Ca²⁺ is low?

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Nebulin

Which thin-filament protein functions as a molecular ruler and helps determine the length and organization of actin filaments?

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α-Actinin

Which Z-line protein cross-links thin filaments and anchors them at the Z line?

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Titin

Which enormous elastic protein extends from the Z line toward the M line, centers thick filaments, and resists excessive sarcomere stretch?

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Desmin

Which muscle-specific intermediate filament connects myofibrils at the level of the Z lines and helps maintain their alignment?

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Dystrophin

Which large cytoskeletal protein links the intracellular actin cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix through the sarcolemma-associated protein complex?

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Duchenne muscular dystrophy

What X-linked muscular dystrophy results from severe dystrophin deficiency and causes progressive skeletal-muscle degeneration?

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Cross-bridge cycle

What sequence describes ATP-dependent attachment of myosin to actin, power stroke, ATP-mediated detachment, and re-cocking of the myosin head?

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Power stroke

During contraction, what event occurs when release of Pi from the myosin head produces movement of the actin filament?

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Rigor state

What condition occurs when ATP is unavailable and myosin heads remain tightly attached to actin?

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Recovery stroke

After ATP binds and causes myosin to detach from actin, what ATP-dependent step repositions the myosin head into its energized conformation?

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Triad

What skeletal-muscle structure consists of one transverse tubule flanked by two terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

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RyR1

Which ryanodine receptor located in the terminal cisternae releases Ca²⁺ into the sarcoplasm during skeletal-muscle excitation?

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SERCA

Which sarcoplasmic-reticulum Ca²⁺-ATPase uses ATP to actively return Ca²⁺ into the SR during muscle relaxation?

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Motor unit

What functional unit consists of one somatic motor neuron and all of the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates?

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Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

Which ligand-gated ion channel on the motor end plate opens when acetylcholine is released from the somatic motor neuron?

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Myasthenia gravis

What autoimmune neuromuscular disorder causes weakness through antibodies directed primarily against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors?

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Botulinum toxin

Which toxin causes flaccid paralysis by interfering with acetylcholine release from presynaptic motor nerve terminals?

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Curare

Which neuromuscular-blocking agent produces paralysis by competitively blocking nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate?

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Succinylcholine

Which depolarizing neuromuscular blocker initially activates nicotinic receptors but produces prolonged depolarization and paralysis?

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Intercalated disc

What specialized junctional complex connects adjacent cardiac muscle cells and contains fascia adherens, desmosomes, and gap junctions?

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Diad

What cardiac muscle structure consists of one T tubule associated with one terminal cisterna of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

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Calcium-induced calcium release

What mechanism describes extracellular Ca²⁺ entry through L-type Ca²⁺ channels triggering additional Ca²⁺ release from the cardiac SR?

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Purkinje fiber

Which specialized cardiac muscle cell conducts impulses rapidly through the ventricles and contains abundant glycogen with relatively peripheral myofibrils?

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Atrial granules

Which membrane-bound granules in atrial cardiomyocytes contain atrial natriuretic peptide?

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Troponin I

Which cardiac muscle biomarker is released after myocardial injury and is highly useful for detecting myocardial infarction?

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Smooth muscle

Which muscle type lacks sarcomeres, T tubules, and troponin but contracts through Ca²⁺-calmodulin activation of MLCK?

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Dense bodies

What structures in smooth muscle serve as functional analogues of Z lines by anchoring actin filaments?

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Calmodulin

Which intracellular Ca²⁺-binding protein activates myosin light-chain kinase in smooth muscle?

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Myosin light-chain kinase

Which enzyme is activated by Ca²⁺-calmodulin and phosphorylates the regulatory myosin light chain in smooth muscle?

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Latch state

What smooth-muscle state permits prolonged force maintenance with relatively low ATP consumption?

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Satellite cell

Which quiescent skeletal-muscle stem cell lies between the sarcolemma and external lamina and participates in muscle regeneration?

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Pax7

Which transcription factor is characteristically associated with skeletal-muscle satellite cells and their maintenance?

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Motor neuron

In the spinal cord, which large neuron in the ventral horn has abundant Nissl substance and directly supplies skeletal muscle?

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Nissl substance

Which basophilic neuronal cytoplasmic material reflects abundant rough ER and ribosomes involved in protein synthesis?

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Node of Ranvier

What interruption between adjacent myelin segments permits saltatory conduction along a myelinated axon?

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Schmidt-Lanterman cleft

What cytoplasmic channel within a Schwann-cell myelin sheath allows communication between the Schwann-cell cytoplasm and the periphery of the myelinated fiber?

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Schwann cell

Which PNS glial cell forms myelin around individual axonal segments and also supports regeneration after peripheral nerve injury?

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Oligodendrocyte

Which CNS glial cell forms myelin and can myelinate segments of multiple axons?

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Astrocyte

Which CNS glial cell extends perivascular end feet and contributes to maintenance of the blood-brain barrier and extracellular environment?

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GFAP

Which intermediate filament protein is characteristically expressed by astrocytes and is useful as a marker for astrocytic tumors?

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Microglia

Which CNS cell of mesodermal origin acts as the principal resident phagocytic cell of nervous tissue?

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Ependyma

Which simple epithelial-like cell layer lines the ventricles and central canal and contributes to the lining associated with CSF circulation?

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Satellite cell

Which PNS glial cell forms a sheath around neuronal cell bodies within peripheral ganglia?

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Enteric glia

Which PNS-supporting glial cells resemble astrocytes functionally and are associated with neurons of the enteric nervous system?

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Blood-brain barrier

What selective barrier depends primarily on endothelial tight junctions, basal lamina, and astrocytic end feet rather than ependymal tight junctions?

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Aquaporin-4

Which water channel concentrated in astrocytic end feet is particularly important in CNS water movement and edema?

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Circumventricular organs

In which CNS regions is the blood-brain barrier physiologically absent or modified to permit sampling or secretion into the circulation?

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Endoneurium

Which connective-tissue layer surrounds an individual peripheral nerve fiber?

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Perineurium

Which connective-tissue sheath surrounds a peripheral nerve fascicle and contributes to the blood-nerve barrier?

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Epineurium

Which outer connective-tissue layer surrounds an entire peripheral nerve and contains larger vessels and adipose tissue?

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Pseudounipolar neuron

What neuronal morphology is characteristic of sensory neurons in dorsal-root and many cranial sensory ganglia?

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Sensory ganglion

Which PNS ganglion contains large pseudounipolar neurons surrounded by satellite cells and generally lacks synaptic connections within the ganglion?

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Autonomic ganglion

Which peripheral ganglion contains multipolar neurons that receive synaptic input from preganglionic autonomic neurons?

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Myenteric plexus

Which enteric plexus, also called Auerbach plexus, is located between the muscular layers of the gastrointestinal tract?

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Submucosal plexus

Which enteric plexus, also called Meissner plexus, primarily regulates mucosal secretion and blood flow?

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Adrenal medulla

What endocrine tissue represents a modified sympathetic ganglion in which chromaffin cells function as modified postganglionic neurons?

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Guillain-Barré syndrome

Which autoimmune disorder causes demyelination of peripheral nerves and can produce ascending weakness?

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Multiple sclerosis

Which demyelinating disease primarily affects the CNS rather than peripheral nerves?

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Parkinson disease

Which neurologic disorder is associated with degeneration of dopaminergic neurons and reduced dopamine signaling?

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Osteoprogenitor cell

Which mesenchymal-derived bone precursor expresses RUNX2/CBFA1 and can differentiate into osteoblasts?

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Osteoblast

Which mononuclear, basophilic bone-forming cell synthesizes osteoid and initiates matrix mineralization?

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Osteocyte

What former osteoblast becomes embedded within bone matrix, occupies a lacuna, extends processes through canaliculi, and helps maintain bone homeostasis?

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Bone-lining cell

Which flattened, quiescent cell represents an inactive osteoblast covering a resting bone surface?

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Osteoclast

Which multinucleated, TRAP-positive cell forms a ruffled border and sealing zone within a Howship lacuna to resorb bone?

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Howship lacuna

What shallow depression on the bone surface contains an actively resorbing osteoclast?

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Ruffled border

Which highly folded osteoclast membrane concentrates proton pumps and lysosomal enzymes at the bone-resorbing surface?

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TRAP

Which histochemical marker is characteristically expressed by osteoclasts and is useful for identifying these bone-resorbing cells?

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Cathepsin K

Which osteoclast protease is particularly important for degradation of the collagenous organic component of bone matrix?

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RANKL

Which osteoblast-lineage/osteocyte-associated ligand promotes osteoclast differentiation by activating RANK on osteoclast precursors?

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Osteoprotegerin

Which osteoblast-lineage-derived decoy receptor inhibits osteoclastogenesis by binding RANKL and preventing RANK activation?

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Calcitonin

Which hormone directly inhibits osteoclast activity and therefore tends to lower circulating Ca²⁺?

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PTH

Which hormone raises blood Ca²⁺ largely by acting indirectly on osteoclasts through osteoblast-lineage cells rather than by binding osteoclasts directly?

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Woven bone

Which immature bone has randomly arranged collagen, relatively high cellularity, and is characteristic of fetal development and early fracture repair?

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Lamellar bone

Which mature bone has highly organized collagen arranged in parallel or concentric lamellae and provides greater mechanical strength?

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Osteon

What structural unit of compact bone consists of concentric lamellae surrounding a central Haversian canal?

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Interstitial lamellae

What irregular lamellae between osteons represent remnants of older osteons partially removed during bone remodeling?