Kahoot Practice Question Hip and Joint Kinesiology Exam 2

1. What sagittal plane motion will the hip adductors create when the hip is positioned in 80° of flexion?

A. Hip flexion

B. Hip internal rotation

C. Hip extension 

D. Hip external rotation

C

2. Which of the following arthrokinematic motions occurs during distal end free knee flexion?

A. Posterior roll and slide of the tibia on the femur 

B. Anterior roll and posterior slide of the tibia on the femur

C. Posterior roll and anterior slide of the tibia on the femur

D. Anterior roll and slide of the tibia on the femur

A

3. Which arthrokinematic motion is necessary to achieve full distal end fixed hip adduction?

A. Superior roll and slide of the acetabulum on the femur

B. Inferior roll and superior slide of the acetabulum on the femur

C. Superior roll and inferior slide of the acetabulum on the femur

D. Inferior roll and slide of the acetabulum on the femur 

D

4. A physical therapist is prescribing distal end fixed knee extension exercises for a patient with patellofemoral joint pain. Which range of motion would be MOST appropriate to minimize patellofemoral joint compression forces?

A. 45–90° of knee flexion

B. 60–90° of knee flexion

C. 0–45° of knee flexion 

D. 30–75° of knee flexion

C

5. A physical therapist measures increased hip external rotation ROM and decreased hip internal rotation ROM. Which femoral torsion abnormality is MOST likely present?

A. Femoral anteversion

B. Coxa vara

C. Femoral retroversion 

D. Coxa valga

C

6. Which frontal plane knee alignment is MOST commonly associated with a significant coxa valga deformity

A. Genu valgum

B. Genu varum 

C. Genu recurvatum

D. Neutral knee alignment

B

7. Which portion of the femoral neck is typically subjected to compressive forces during weight-bearing activities?

A. Superior

B. Inferior 

C. Anterior

D. Posterior

B

8. Which knee ligament acts as an antagonist to the quadriceps by resisting anterior translation of the tibia?

A. Anterior cruciate ligament 

B. Posterior cruciate ligament

C. Medial collateral ligament

D. Lateral collateral ligament

A

9. Which ligament provides the STRONGEST passive restraint against hip hyperextension?

A. Iliofemoral ligament 

B. Ischiofemoral ligament

C. Pubofemoral ligament

D. Ligamentum teres

A

10. During active knee extension, in which direction does the patella primarily glide?

A. Inferiorly

B. Medially

C. Laterally

D. Superiorly

D

11. A physical therapist assesses a patient with limited active hip flexion ROM but full passive hip flexion ROM. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?

A. Hip capsular restriction

B. Hip flexor weakness 

C. Shortened hip extensors

D. Restricted posterior glide of the femoral head

B

12. Which of the following describes the mechanical axis of the femur?

A. A line extending through the center of the femoral shaft

B. A line connecting the greater trochanter to the lateral femoral condyle

C. A line extending from the ASIS to the tibial tuberosity

D. A line connecting the center of the hip joint to the center of the knee joint 

D

13. A patient presents with a significantly decreased femoral neck-shaft angle. Which of the following biomechanical changes would be MOST expected?

A. Increased hip abductor moment arm and increased femoral neck shear forces 

B. Decreased hip abductor moment arm and decreased femoral neck shear forces

C. Increased hip abductor moment arm and decreased femoral neck shear forces

D. Decreased hip abductor moment arm and increased femoral neck shear forces

A

14. A patient presents with significant coxa valga. Which of the following changes would MOST likely occur?

A. Increased hip abductor moment arm and decreased joint reaction forces

B. Decreased hip abductor moment arm and decreased joint reaction forces

C. Decreased hip abductor moment arm and increased joint reaction forces 

D. Increased hip abductor moment arm and increased joint reaction forces

C

15. Which of the following is a PRIMARY function of the acetabular labrum?

A. Increasing the amount of available hip internal rotation

B. Deepening the acetabulum and creating a suction seal 

C. Preventing all translation of the femoral head

D. Reducing the contact area between the femoral head and acetabulum

B

16. Which of the following represents the correct order of motion loss when the hip capsule is involved in pathology, from MOST restricted to LEAST restricted?

A. Flexion > Internal rotation > Extension = Abduction

B. Internal rotation > Abduction > Flexion = Extension

C. Internal rotation > Flexion > Abduction = Extension

D. Extension > Internal rotation > Flexion = Abduction

C

17. Which of the following positions places the hip joint in its close-packed position?

A. 90° flexion, moderate abduction, and external rotation

B. 30° flexion, 30° abduction, and slight external rotation

C. Full extension, slight abduction, and slight internal rotation 

D. Full flexion, adduction, and internal rotation

C

18. During distal end free hip abduction, which arthrokinematic motion occurs at the femoroacetabular joint?

A. Superior roll and inferior slide of the femoral head 

B. Inferior roll and superior slide of the femoral head

C. Superior roll and slide of the femoral head

D. Inferior roll and slide of the femoral head

A

19. Which of the following hip ligaments MOST strongly restricts hip internal rotation and extension, according to the lecture material?

A. Iliofemoral ligament

B. Pubofemoral ligament

C. Ligamentum teres

D. Ischiofemoral ligament 

D

20. A patient sustains a femoral neck stress fracture along the superior aspect of the neck. Which of the following BEST explains why this location may be more concerning than an inferior femoral neck stress fracture?

A. The superior femoral neck primarily experiences compressive forces

B. The superior femoral neck experiences tensile forces that can contribute to fracture propagation 

C. The inferior femoral neck experiences greater tensile forces

D. The superior femoral neck is not subjected to bending forces

B

21. Which of the following muscles is a PRIMARY hip extensor regardless of hip position?

A. Adductor longus

B. Pectineus

C. Posterior adductor magnus 

D. Rectus femoris

C

22. During a straight leg raise, a patient demonstrates excessive anterior pelvic tilt and increased lumbar lordosis. Which muscle group is MOST likely failing to adequately counteract the hip flexors?

A. Abdominal muscles 

B. Hip adductors

C. Lumbar extensors

D. Hip external rotators

A

23. A patient leans progressively farther forward while standing. Which of the following biomechanical changes occurs in the hip extensors?

A. The gluteus maximus moment arm increases while the hamstring moment arm decreases

B. Both gluteus maximus and hamstring moment arms decrease

C. Both gluteus maximus and hamstring moment arms increase

D. The hamstring moment arm increases while the gluteus maximus moment arm decreases 

D

24. A patient with a significant hip flexion contracture requires increased muscular activity to maintain upright standing. Which of the following BEST explains this finding?

A. Gravity creates an increased external hip extension torque

B. Gravity creates a hip flexion torque that must be resisted by the hip extensors 

C. The iliofemoral ligament becomes maximally tensioned in hip flexion

D. The hip abductors must generate an increased internal rotation torque

B

25. During single-leg stance on the right lower extremity, the patient's left pelvis drops. Which muscle group is MOST likely weak?

A. Left hip abductors

B. Left hip adductors

C. Right hip abductors 

D. Right hip flexors

C

26. A patient demonstrates weakness of the right hip abductors during gait. Which compensatory movement would MOST likely reduce the muscular demand on the right hip abductors?

A. Lateral trunk lean toward the right stance limb 

B. Lateral trunk lean toward the left swing limb

C. Increased hip adduction during right stance

D. Increased step width without trunk movement

A

27. A physical therapist is testing hip internal rotation strength. Why might the patient demonstrate greater torque production when the hip is positioned in 90° of flexion?

A. Hip flexion eliminates the need for gluteus medius activation

B. Hip flexion decreases the transverse plane moment arms of the internal rotators

C. Hip flexion places all external rotators into active insufficiency

D. Hip flexion improves the mechanical advantage of several internal rotators

D

28. Which muscle may change from functioning as a hip external rotator to contributing to internal rotation when the hip is flexed beyond approximately 90°?

A. Quadratus femoris

B. Piriformis 

C. Obturator externus

D. Sartorius

B

29. A patient with left hip osteoarthritis is instructed to use a straight cane to reduce joint loading during gait. In which hand should the patient hold the cane?

A. Left hand to increase the left hip abductor moment arm

B. Left hand to increase the internal hip abduction torque required

C. Right hand to reduce the internal hip abduction torque required 

D. Right hand to increase compression through the left hip

C

30. During single-leg stance, the hip abductors generate substantial force to maintain pelvic stability. Which of the following BEST explains why hip joint reaction forces can exceed body weight?

A. Joint reaction forces reflect the combined effects of muscular and external forces acting across the joint 

B. Joint reaction forces are created only by gravity

C. Hip abductor contraction eliminates compressive forces across the joint

D. Joint reaction forces are independent of muscle activation

A

31. Which of the following BEST describes the tibiofemoral joint?

A. Plane joint with one degree of freedom

B. Modified hinge joint with two degrees of freedom 

C. Ball-and-socket joint with three degrees of freedom

D. Pivot joint with one degree of freedom

B

32. Which of the following positions represents the close-packed position of the tibiofemoral joint?

A. 25° knee flexion with internal rotation

B. 90° knee flexion with neutral rotation

C. Full knee flexion with external rotation

D. Full knee extension with external rotation 

D

33. During distal end fixed knee flexion, which arthrokinematic motions occur?

A. Posterior roll and anterior slide of the femur on the tibia 

B. Posterior roll and slide of the femur on the tibia

C. Anterior roll and posterior slide of the femur on the tibia

D. Anterior roll and slide of the femur on the tibia

A

34. During the final 30° of distal end free knee extension, which of the following motions occurs as part of the screw-home mechanism?

A. Approximately 10–20° of tibial internal rotation

B. Approximately 30–40° of femoral external rotation

C. Approximately 10–20° of tibial external rotation 

D. Approximately 30–40° of tibial internal rotation

C

35. Which muscle is primarily responsible for unlocking the knee during distal end free movement?

A. Rectus femoris

B. Popliteus 

C. Biceps femoris

D. Gastrocnemius

B

36. Which of the following characteristics distinguishes the medial meniscus from the lateral meniscus?

A. It is more mobile and covers a greater percentage of tibial cartilage

B. It has an O-shaped structure and is not associated with the MCL

C. It is injured less frequently because of increased mobility

D. It is less mobile and has attachments associated with the MCL 

D

37. Which of the following BEST describes the primary biomechanical function of the menisci?

A. Increasing joint contact area to distribute compressive loads 

B. Decreasing joint congruency to improve mobility

C. Increasing peak articular contact pressure

D. Preventing all rotation at the tibiofemoral joint

A

38. A patient sustains a forceful valgus stress to the knee. Which ligament is the PRIMARY restraint against this force?

A. Lateral collateral ligament

B. Posterior cruciate ligament

C. Medial collateral ligament 

D. Anterior cruciate ligament

C

39. A patient sustains a direct blow to the anterior tibia while the knee is flexed. Which ligament is MOST likely injured?

A. Anterior cruciate ligament

B. Posterior cruciate ligament 

C. Medial collateral ligament

D. Lateral collateral ligament

B

40. A basketball player lands from a jump with the knee nearly extended, excessive valgus collapse, and internal rotation of the femur on a fixed tibia. Which ligament is MOST at risk for injury?

A. Posterior cruciate ligament

B. Medial collateral ligament

C. Lateral collateral ligament

D. Anterior cruciate ligament 

D

41. Approximately what percentage of knee extension torque is generated by the vastus muscle group?

A. 40%

B. 60%

C. 80% 

D. 100%

C

42. As the knee moves from 90° flexion toward full extension, the quadriceps' internal torque-generating potential decreases significantly. Which of the following BEST explains this change?

A. The quadriceps moment arm and muscle belly length decrease 

B. The patella completely loses contact with the femur

C. The quadriceps moment arm increases while muscle force decreases

D. The hamstrings produce an increasingly large external flexion torque

A

43. Which of the following is a PRIMARY biomechanical advantage provided by the patella?

A. Decreasing the moment arm of the quadriceps

B. Eliminating anterior shear forces at the tibiofemoral joint

C. Preventing tibial rotation during knee extension

D. Increasing the moment arm of the knee extensor mechanism 

D

44. Which of the following positions allows for the GREATEST patellar mobility during joint play assessment?

A. 90° knee flexion

B. Full knee extension 

C. 60° knee flexion

D. 120° knee flexion

B

45. A physical therapist is prescribing distal end free knee extension exercises for a patient with patellofemoral pain. Which range would be MOST appropriate to minimize patellofemoral stress according to the lecture?

A. 0–30° knee flexion

B. 0–45° knee flexion

C. 45–90° knee flexion 

D. 15–60° knee flexion

C

46. During a distal end fixed squat, patellofemoral compressive forces generally increase as knee flexion increases. Which of the following BEST explains this relationship?

A. Quadriceps force and knee flexion angle contribute to increasing compression 

B. Patellar contact area decreases to zero with knee flexion

C. Quadriceps force decreases as knee flexion increases

D. The patellar tendon becomes completely unloaded during deep flexion

A

47. Which of the following muscles is the PRIMARY external rotator of the knee?

A. Semitendinosus

B. Popliteus

C. Gracilis

D. Biceps femoris

D

48. A physical therapist is assessing hamstring torque production. Which position would generally improve the hamstrings' knee flexion torque potential?

A. Hip extension with knee flexion

B. Hip flexion with knee flexion 

C. Hip extension with full knee extension

D. Hip flexion with maximal knee extension and no active contraction

B

49. During a quadriceps contraction near full knee extension, which of the following forces contributes to increased ACL tension?

A. Posterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur

B. Anterior translation of the femur relative to the tibia

C. Anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur 

D. Compression of the tibiofemoral joint without anterior shear

C

 50. During quiet standing with the knee fully extended, the quadriceps can remain relatively relaxed. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon?

A. Gravity creates a slight external knee extension torque that is resisted by passive posterior structures 

B. Gravity creates a large knee flexion torque requiring constant hamstring contraction

C. The quadriceps remain maximally activated to prevent knee flexion

D. The patella prevents all movement at the tibiofemoral joint

A