T-cell guides

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90 Terms

1
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What are the 3 signals required for T-cell activation?

TCR + peptide-MHC + CD4/CD8 coreceptor

Costimulation, including CD28

Cytokines

2
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What is Signal 1 for T-cell activation?

TCR recognition of peptide-MHC, supported by the CD4 or CD8 coreceptor.

3
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What is Signal 2 for T-cell activation?

Costimulation, including CD28.

4
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What is Signal 3 for T-cell activation?

Cytokines.

5
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What does MHC class II present antigen to?

CD4+ T cells (helper T cells).

6
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What does MHC class I present antigen to?

CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic T cells).

7
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What kinase associates with CD4 and CD8?

Lck, which helps initiate signaling.

8
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What molecules strengthen the interaction between T cells and APCs?

Adhesion molecules. The guide lists molecules including LFA-1 and ICAM-1 in this context.

9
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What molecules interact with CD28 to provide costimulation?

CD80/CD86 on the antigen-presenting cell.

10
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What happens after successful T-cell activation?

Survival → proliferation → differentiation.

11
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What is the overall function of costimulatory signals?

Promote optimal T-cell activation.

12
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What is the overall function of coinhibitory signals?

Prevent/inhibit T-cell activation.

13
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What two receptors are engaged during activation of naïve T cells?

TCR + CD28.

14
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What coinhibitory molecule is upregulated on activated T cells?

CTLA-4.

15
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What ligands does CTLA-4 bind?

The guide describes CTLA-4 as binding CD28 ligands, which produces an inhibitory effect.

16
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What antibody in the study guide blocks CTLA-4?

Ipilimumab.

17
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What happens when CTLA-4 engagement is blocked with ipilimumab?

The T cell can become reactivated.

18
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What happens when a resting T cell recognizes antigen AND receives CD80/86 costimulation?

The T cell is activated and expands.

19
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What happens when a T cell recognizes antigen on a non-APC but receives no costimulation?

The T cell becomes inactive/anergic.

20
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What can happen if a T cell recognizes antigen but receives inhibitory rather than costimulatory signaling?

Anergy can occur.

21
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Where does T-cell development occur?

Thymus.

22
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What surrounds the thymus?

A capsule.

23
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What divides the thymus into lobules?

Trabeculae.

24
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What are the two main regions of a thymic lobule?

Outer = Cortex

Inner = Medulla

25
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Where are immature T cells primarily located and developing?

Cortex.

26
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What occurs in the thymic medulla?

The guide associates the medulla with negative selection and maturation and notes more macrophages and dendritic cells there.

27
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What are immature T cells in the thymus called?

Thymocytes.

28
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What does DN mean?

Double negative: neither CD4 nor CD8 is expressed.

29
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What does DP mean?

Double positive: both CD4 and CD8 are expressed.

30
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What does SP mean?

Single positive: the more mature cell has CD4 OR CD8.

31
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What is a cTEC?

Cortical thymic epithelial cell, which helps with positive selection of developing T cells.

32
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What is an mTEC?

Medullary thymic epithelial cell, which helps with negative selection by presenting self-antigens.

33
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Which cells exclusively mediate positive selection according to the guide?

cTECs.

34
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Can negative selection occur in both the cortex and medulla?

Yes.

35
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Which stages can be targeted during negative selection?

DP and SP thymocytes.

36
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Which thymic epithelial cells can present tissue-specific self-antigens according to the guide?

mTECs.

37
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What is central selection?

Developing lymphocytes are selected in primary lymphoid organs to promote useful immune responses while limiting self-reactivity.

38
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Is central tolerance perfect?

No. The guide says it is reinforced in the periphery, including by regulatory T cells.

39
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What transcription/signaling factor is required for T-cell development according to the guide?

Notch1.

40
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What does Notch1 promote according to the study guide?

T-cell rather than B-cell development.

41
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Where do the earliest thymocytes enter the thymus?

Corticomedullary junction.

42
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Where do thymocytes mature further after entering the thymus?

Thymic cortex.

43
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Where do they finalize maturation?

Thymic medulla.

44
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What does a TCR/CD4/MHC II signal favor?

CD4 single-positive cells.

45
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After costimulation and activation, what helps determine T-cell function?

Signal 3 cytokines present during the response.

46
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What Signal 3 cytokines are listed for TH1 differentiation?

IFN-γ, TNF, IL-12.

47
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What Signal 3 cytokines are listed for TH2 differentiation?

IL-4 and IL-6.

48
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What cytokines are listed for regulatory T cells?

TGF-β and IL-2.

49
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What is the master transcription regulator for TH1 cells?

T-bet.

50
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What is the master transcription regulator for TH2 cells?

GATA-3.

51
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TH1/type 1 responses are broadly associated with what pathogens in the guide?

Bacteria and viruses.

52
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TH2 responses are broadly associated with what pathogens?

Parasites/worms.

53
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What STAT is associated with the TH1 pathway in the study guide's recall list?

STAT4.

54
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What STAT is associated with the TH2 pathway in the study guide's recall list?

STAT6.

55
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What is TH1/TH2 cross-regulation?

Regulation of the opposing T-helper pathway through transcription factors and cytokines.

56
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What does T-bet suppress?

GATA-3 and TH2 cytokine production.

57
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What does GATA-3 suppress?

T-bet and TH1 cytokines.

58
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What happens to most effector T cells after pathogen clearance?

The guide states that at least 95% die by apoptosis, leaving a memory T-cell population.

59
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How do memory T cells respond to a second challenge with the same antigen?

With heightened reactivity, producing a faster and more effective secondary response.

60
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Naïve T cells are activated almost exclusively by what cells?

Dendritic cells.

61
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Which APCs are listed as capable of activating memory T cells?

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

62
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What are the four memory T-cell subsets listed in the guide?

TCM: Central memory

TEM: Effector memory

TRM: Resident memory

TSCM: Stem cell memory

63
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What can distinguish the different memory T-cell subsets?

Location, phenotype, and function.

64
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What is the TCR?

A specialized surface receptor on T lymphocytes that recognizes specific antigens presented by MHC.

65
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What is the basic structure of the TCR?

A heterodimer containing two polypeptide chains.

66
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What are the two chains of the αβ TCR?

Alpha (α) and beta (β).

67
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What regions are found in a TCR chain?

Variable domain

Constant domain

Transmembrane region

Cytoplasmic tail

68
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What immunological structure does the TCR resemble?

Immunoglobulin/antibody.

69
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What process generates diversity in TCR genes?

V(D)J recombination during T-cell development in the thymus.

70
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Are all TCR genes located on one chromosome?

No.

71
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What chromosome contains TCR α and δ genes?

Chromosome 14.

72
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What chromosome contains TCR β and γ genes?

Chromosome 7.

73
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What do V, D, J, and C stand for?

V = Variable

D = Diversity

J = Joining

C = Constant

74
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What is the primary function of the TCR αβ heterodimer?

Recognizes antigen.

75
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What is the function of the CD3 components associated with the TCR?

T-cell signaling.

76
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What two main classes of TCR are listed?

αβ

γδ

77
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Can the TCR bind antigen directly without antigen presentation?

No. The guide states that TCR requires antigen presentation by MHC.

78
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What is the structure of MHC class I?

One large α chain

3 extracellular domains: α1, α2, α3

β2-microglobulin

79
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What is the structure of MHC class II?

α chain: α1 and α2

β chain: β1 and β2

80
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Which T cell recognizes antigen presented by MHC I?

CD8+ T cell.

81
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Which T cell recognizes antigen presented by MHC II?

CD4+ T cell.

82
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Is MHC class I expressed on epithelial cells?

Yes, according to the study guide.

83
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Is MHC class I expressed on white blood cells?

Yes.

84
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Do all cells express MHC class II according to the guide?

No.

85
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What type of peptide does MHC class I typically present?

Cytosolic/intracellular peptide.

86
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What type of peptide does MHC class II typically present?

Extracellular peptide.

87
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What is the proteasome?

An intracellular system that degrades proteins into peptides.

88
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What is an immunoproteasome?

A proteasome induced particularly by inflammatory cytokines such as IFN-γ that supports antigen processing and CD8 immune responses.

89
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What can happen when a long peptide binds MHC class I?

The peptide may bulge out of the groove, be trimmed, or adopt another conformation.

90
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What is the role of CLIP in MHC class II processing?

Prevents premature peptide binding to MHC class II in the endoplasmic reticulum.