BIOL 3461 Exam 3 Practice Packet 1

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59 Terms

1
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Which statement about the transition state (X‡) of a reaction is correct?

High free energy, short-lived, with at least one partial bond.

2
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Compared with the uncatalyzed reaction, an enzyme changes which of the following?

Lowers activation free energy (ΔG‡).

3
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Enzyme catalysis requires what relationship between KT and KS?

KT is much smaller than KS (tighter transition-state binding).

4
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What is a transition-state analog (TSA)?

A stable molecule resembling the transition state that acts as a competitive inhibitor.

5
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Which drug was described as based on the transition state of its target enzyme?

Tamiflu (viral neuraminidase inhibitor).

6
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Which is NOT a way enzymes destabilize the ES complex to favor catalysis?

Binding the substrate as tightly as possible to maximize ES stability.

7
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What is a near-attack complex (NAC)?

Reacting atoms within about 3.2 Å and within ±15° of the transition-state bonding angle.

8
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In covalent catalysis, what does the enzyme do?

Uses an active-site nucleophile to form a temporary covalent bond with the substrate.

9
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What is correct about a low-barrier hydrogen bond (LBHB)?

Heteroatoms are closer than 0.25 nm and have similar pKa values.

10
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What is the catalytic triad of chymotrypsin?

His57, Asp102, and Ser195.

11
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What forms the oxyanion hole of chymotrypsin?

Backbone N-H groups of Gly193 and Ser195.

12
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Trypsin cleaves peptide bonds on the carbonyl side of which residues?

Lys or Arg, except when followed by Pro.

13
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How many peptide fragments result when a polypeptide is cut 4 times by trypsin?

5 fragments.

14
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Why does chymotrypsin show burst kinetics with an artificial ester substrate?

Fast acylation releases product first, followed by slower deacylation limiting the rate.

15
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In the first step of the serine protease mechanism, His57 acts as what?

A general base that removes the proton from Ser195-OH.

16
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How do aspartic proteases like pepsin differ from serine proteases?

They use two Asp residues and activated water with no covalent intermediate.

17
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Why is pepsin active at acidic pH?

One active-site Asp must be protonated and the other deprotonated.

18
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How is HIV-1 protease best described?

A homodimeric aspartic protease with a two-fold symmetric active site.

19
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In the GAPDH mechanism, Cys-SH first reacts with GAP to form what?

A thiohemiacetal oxidized by NAD+ to a thioester.

20
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Which enzyme regulation form is irreversible?

Zymogen (proenzyme) activation by proteolytic cleavage.

21
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In protein kinase A, how is the catalytic (C) subunit activated?

cAMP binds the regulatory (R) subunit, releasing active C.

22
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Acetylation of the ε-amino group of a Lys residue does what?

Neutralizes the positive charge by forming a neutral amide.

23
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What is TRUE about regulatory (allosteric) enzymes?

They are usually oligomers showing sigmoidal v versus [S] curves.

24
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How many residues remain in mature insulin after removing residues 31-65 from proinsulin (86 aa)?

51 residues.

25
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What feature belongs to the MWC (concerted) model?

All oligomer subunits are in the same state (T or R) and switch together.

26
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What statement about the KNF (sequential) model is correct?

Ligand binding induces conformational change passed to neighbors, allowing intermediate states.

27
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How does a negative allosteric effector affect a K system enzyme?

Shifts curve right (higher K0.5) with unchanged Vmax.

28
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How does a negative allosteric effector affect a V system enzyme?

K0.5 stays constant and Vmax decreases.

29
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In the MWC model, what does a positive effector do?

Shifts T/R equilibrium toward R, lowering L.

30
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How do myoglobin and hemoglobin differ?

Mb is a monomer with hyperbolic O2 curve; Hb is a tetramer with sigmoidal curve.

31
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Which heme iron state binds O2, and what is its fifth ligand?

Fe2+, with His F8 as the fifth ligand.

32
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In a patient with alkalosis, how does the hemoglobin O2 saturation curve shift?

Shifted left because O2 affinity is higher.

33
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How does 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) affect hemoglobin?

Binds central cavity between β subunits of deoxy-Hb, stabilizing T state.

34
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Why does fetal hemoglobin have higher O2 affinity than adult Hb?

γ chains have Ser instead of His143, weakening BPG binding.

35
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How does CO2 lower hemoglobin's O2 affinity?

Forms protons and carbamates that stabilize the T state.

36
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How is hemoglobin's cooperative O2 binding best explained?

Features of both KNF and MWC models.

37
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An organism using light for energy and CO2 for carbon is a what?

Photoautotroph.

38
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Which description of catabolism is correct?

Oxidative degradation of nutrients to simple products, capturing energy as ATP/reduced carriers.

39
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What is NADPH mainly used for?

A source of reducing power for biosynthetic (anabolic) reactions.

40
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What are the final products of complete aerobic catabolism?

CO2 and H2O.

41
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What is ΔG for PEP + ADP → pyruvate + ATP given PEP hydrolysis is -78 kJ/mol and ATP synthesis is +55 kJ/mol?

-23 kJ/mol.

42
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Why can't catabolic and anabolic pathways be exact reverses?

Each direction must be favorable and independently regulated.

43
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What is a pathway serving both catabolism and anabolism called?

Amphibolic.

44
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What is fluxomics?

Quantitative study of metabolite flow through a metabolic network.

45
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If an inhibitor blocks one enzyme in a linear pathway, what happens?

Upstream intermediates accumulate; downstream intermediates fall.

46
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Which of the following is a ketose?

Fructose.

47
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D-glucose and D-galactose differ only at C4. What are they?

Epimers.

48
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Which pair are enantiomers?

D-glucose and L-glucose.

49
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How many stereoisomers does an aldohexose have?

16.

50
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In the Haworth projection of a D-sugar, where is the α anomer's hydroxyl?

Pointing down, opposite the CH2OH group.

51
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D-glucose in solution exists in all mutarotation forms EXCEPT which one?

L-glucopyranose.

52
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Reaction of C5 hydroxyl of glucose with C1 aldehyde forms what?

A pyranose ring containing a hemiacetal and new chiral anomeric carbon.

53
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Why is sucrose not a reducing sugar?

Both anomeric carbons are tied up in the glycosidic bond.

54
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What is lactose composed of?

Galactose β(1→4) glucose.

55
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How do cellulose and amylose differ?

Cellulose has β(1→4) linkages forming fibers; amylose has α(1→4) linkages coiling into helices.

56
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How do glycogen and starch (amylopectin) differ mainly?

Glycogen has a higher degree of branching.

57
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What is notable about heparin?

It is a highly negatively charged GAG acting as an anticoagulant.

58
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In an N-linked glycoprotein, where is the oligosaccharide attached?

The amide nitrogen of an Asn side chain.

59
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Which feature describes the Gram-positive bacterial cell wall?

One membrane with a thick peptidoglycan layer.