Exam 3 (Head & Neck) Practice MCQ Test- DPAP Fall 2026

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Last updated 12:56 AM on 10/19/26
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120 Terms

1
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Which cranial nerve passes through the cribriform plate?

A. CN II

B. CN I

C. CN III

D. CN V1

B. CN I

2
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Which cranial nerve exits the skull through the optic canal?

A. CN II

B. CN III

C. CN IV

D. CN VI

A. CN II

3
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Which combination of cranial nerves passes through the superior orbital fissure?

A. II, III, IV, V2

B. III, IV, V1, VI

C. V1, V2, V3, VI

D. III, V2, VII, VIII

B. III, IV, V1, VI

4
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Through which foramen does the maxillary division of CN V pass?

A. Foramen ovale

B. Jugular foramen

C. Foramen rotundum

D. Optic canal

C. Foramen rotundum

5
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Through which foramen does the mandibular division of CN V pass?

A. Foramen rotundum

B. Foramen ovale

C. Hypoglossal canal

D. Superior orbital fissure

B. Foramen ovale

6
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Which cranial nerve exits via the hypoglossal canal?

A. CN XI

B. CN IX

C. CN XII

D. CN X

C. CN XII

7
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Which cranial nerves pass through the jugular foramen?

A. VII, VIII, IX

B. IX, X, XI

C. X, XI, XII

D. VIII, IX, X

B. IX, X, XI

8
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Which cranial nerves pass through the internal acoustic meatus?

A. VII and VIII

B. V and VII

C. VIII and IX

D. VI and VII

A. VII and VIII

9
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The pterion is clinically important because it overlies the:

A. Cavernous sinus

B. Superior sagittal sinus

C. Middle meningeal artery

D. Internal carotid artery

C. Middle meningeal artery

10
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Which suture separates the frontal and parietal bones?

A. Sagittal

B. Lambdoid

C. Coronal

D. Squamous

C. Coronal

11
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Which structure is palpable in the midline posterior skull?

A. Styloid process

B. Mastoid process

C. External occipital protuberance

D. Zygomatic arch

C. External occipital protuberance

12
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Which structure is found in the anterior cranial fossa?

A. Jugular foramen

B. Cribriform plate

C. Foramen ovale

D. Internal acoustic meatus

B. Cribriform plate

13
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The sella turcica is located in the:

A. Anterior cranial fossa

B. Orbit

C. Middle cranial fossa

D. Posterior cranial fossa

C. Middle cranial fossa

14
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Which opening is found in the posterior cranial fossa?

A. Foramen rotundum

B. Superior orbital fissure

C. Optic canal

D. Foramen magnum

D. Foramen magnum

15
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Parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal gland originate from:

A. CN III

B. CN V

C. CN VII

D. CN IX

C. CN VII

16
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Parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland synapse in the:

A. Ciliary ganglion

B. Otic ganglion

C. Submandibular ganglion

D. Pterygopalatine ganglion

B. Otic ganglion

17
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Which cranial nerve carries parasympathetic fibers for pupil constriction?

A. CN II

B. CN III

C. CN IV

D. CN VI

B. CN III

18
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The ciliary ganglion is associated with:

A. CN III

B. CN VII

C. CN IX

D. CN X

A. CN III

19
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Which cranial nerves carry cranial parasympathetic outflow?

A. III, V, VII, IX

B. III, VII, IX, X

C. II, III, IX, X

D. III, IV, VII, X

B. III, VII, IX, X

20
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Sympathetic fibers to the head generally travel along the:

A. Internal carotid artery

B. Facial artery

C. Lingual artery

D. External jugular vein

A. Internal carotid artery

21
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Which scalp layer is responsible for profuse bleeding from scalp lacerations?

A. Skin

B. Dense connective tissue

C. Aponeurosis

D. Pericranium

B. Dense connective tissue

22
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Which branch of CN V supplies sensation to the forehead?

A. V1

B. V2

C. V3

D. VII

A. V1

23
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Which branch of CN V supplies sensation to the lower jaw?

A. V1

B. V2

C. V3

D. VII

C. V3

24
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The muscle primarily responsible for smiling is:

A. Buccinator

B. Orbicularis oris

C. Zygomaticus major

D. Platysma

C. Zygomaticus major

25
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All muscles of facial expression are innervated by:

A. CN V3

B. CN VII

C. CN IX

D. CN XII

B. CN VII

26
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Bell palsy results from dysfunction of:

A. CN V

B. CN VII

C. CN IX

D. CN XII

B. CN VII

27
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Trigeminal neuralgia most commonly involves:

A. V1 only

B. V2 or V3

C. V1 and VII

D. V3 and VII

B. V2 or V3

28
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Herpes zoster ophthalmicus affects:

A. V1

B. V2

C. V3

D. VII

A. V1

29
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Which structure is contained within the carotid sheath?

A. Phrenic nerve

B. Internal jugular vein

C. Sympathetic trunk

D. Brachial plexus

B. Internal jugular vein

30
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Which cranial nerve is located within the carotid sheath?

A. VII

B. IX

C. X

D. XII

C. X

31
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The carotid body primarily monitors:

A. Cerebral perfusion

B. Blood chemistry

C. Hearing

D. Vision

B. Blood chemistry

32
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Which nerve conveys information from the carotid sinus?

A. CN VII

B. CN IX

C. CN X

D. CN XI

B. CN IX

33
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Which branch of the external carotid artery supplies the tongue?

A. Lingual

B. Facial

C. Superior thyroid

D. Maxillary

A. Lingual

34
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The thyroid gland lies:

A. Posterior to the esophagus

B. Around the larynx and trachea

C. In the posterior triangle

D. Deep to the vertebral column

B. Around the larynx and trachea

35
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How many parathyroid glands are typically present?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

C. 4

36
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Which nerve crosses the posterior triangle of the neck?

A. Hypoglossal

B. Accessory

C. Facial

D. Glossopharyngeal

B. Accessory

37
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The brachial plexus emerges between:

A. Anterior and posterior scalene

B. Anterior and middle scalene

C. Middle and posterior scalene

D. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

B. Anterior and middle scalene

38
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Which muscle elevates the hyoid during swallowing?

A. Sternohyoid

B. Omohyoid

C. Digastric

D. Sternothyroid

C. Digastric

39
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All muscles of mastication are innervated by:

A. CN VII

B. CN IX

C. CN XII

D. CN V3

D. CN V3

40
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Which muscle retracts the mandible?

A. Masseter

B. Temporalis

C. Lateral pterygoid

D. Buccinator

B. Temporalis

41
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Which muscle protrudes the mandible?

A. Temporalis

B. Masseter

C. Lateral pterygoid

D. Medial pterygoid

C. Lateral pterygoid

42
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The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of:

A. V1

B. V2

C. V3

D. VII

C. V3

43
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An inferior alveolar block anesthetizes:

A. Maxillary teeth

B. Mandibular teeth

C. Tongue only

D. Upper lip

B. Mandibular teeth

44
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The pterygoid venous plexus is located in the:

A. Orbit

B. Cavernous sinus

C. Infratemporal fossa

D. Posterior triangle

C. Infratemporal fossa

45
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Which artery contributes directly to the Circle of Willis?

A. Facial artery

B. Lingual artery

C. Internal carotid artery

D. Maxillary artery

C. Internal carotid artery

46
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The outermost meningeal layer is:

A. Pia

B. Arachnoid

C. Dura

D. Choroid

C. Dura

47
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Arachnoid granulations function in:

A. Hearing

B. CSF absorption

C. Vision

D. Smell

B. CSF absorption

48
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Venous blood from the brain ultimately drains into the:

A. External jugular vein

B. Subclavian vein

C. Internal jugular vein

D. Brachiocephalic artery

C. Internal jugular vein

49
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A subdural hemorrhage occurs:

A. Between skull and dura

B. Beneath dura mater

C. Within brain tissue

D. Within ventricles

B. Beneath dura mater

50
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A blow to the pterion most likely causes rupture of the:

A. Internal carotid artery

B. Facial artery

C. Middle meningeal artery

D. Vertebral artery

C. Middle meningeal artery

51
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Infection may spread from the face to the cranial cavity through the:

A. Cavernous sinus

B. Thyroid gland

C. Trachea

D. Hyoid bone

A. Cavernous sinus

52
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Which lymph nodes receive drainage from nearly all head and neck lymphatic pathways?

A. Submental

B. Occipital

C. Deep cervical

D. Mastoid

C. Deep cervical

53
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The transparent anterior portion of the fibrous tunic is the:

A. Iris

B. Lens

C. Cornea

D. Retina

C. Cornea

54
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The vascular layer of the eye is the:

A. Retina

B. Choroid

C. Cornea

D. Sclera

B. Choroid

55
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The region of highest visual acuity is the:

A. Optic disc

B. Ora serrata

C. Fovea

D. Ciliary body

C. Fovea

56
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The ophthalmic artery is a branch of the:

A. External carotid artery

B. Internal carotid artery

C. Maxillary artery

D. Facial artery

B. Internal carotid artery

57
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Which structure does light pass through immediately after the pupil?

A. Retina

B. Lens

C. Cornea

D. Optic nerve

B. Lens

58
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Parasympathetic stimulation produces:

A. Pupil dilation

B. Pupil constriction

C. Eyelid opening

D. Lacrimal drainage

B. Pupil constriction

59
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Sympathetic stimulation of the eye causes:

A. Miosis

B. Accommodation

C. Mydriasis

D. Tear production

C. Mydriasis

60
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Tears drain into which nasal passage?

A. Superior meatus

B. Middle meatus

C. Inferior meatus

D. Sphenoethmoidal recess

C. Inferior meatus

61
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Which extraocular muscle is innervated by CN IV?

A. Inferior rectus

B. Superior oblique

C. Lateral rectus

D. Medial rectus

B. Superior oblique

62
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Which extraocular muscle is innervated by CN VI?

A. Superior rectus

B. Inferior oblique

C. Medial rectus

D. Lateral rectus

D. Lateral rectus

63
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Horner syndrome causes:

A. Mydriasis

B. Exophthalmos

C. Miosis

D. Diplopia

C. Miosis

64
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Which auditory ossicle is attached to the tympanic membrane?

A. Incus

B. Malleus

C. Stapes

D. Cochlea

B. Malleus

65
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Which ossicle contacts the oval window?

A. Malleus

B. Incus

C. Stapes

D. Cochlea

C. Stapes

66
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Otitis media is more common in infants because the auditory tube is:

A. Longer and steeper

B. Shorter and less angled

C. Wider and more muscular

D. Closed

B. Shorter and less angled

67
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Hearing and balance are transmitted by:

A. CN VII

B. CN VIII

C. CN IX

D. CN X

B. CN VIII

68
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Tensor tympani is innervated by:

A. CN VII

B. CN IX

C. CN V3

D. CN XII

C. CN V3

69
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The stapedius muscle is innervated by:

A. CN VII

B. CN VIII

C. CN IX

D. CN X

A. CN VII

70
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Which structure separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity?

A. Tongue

B. Soft palate

C. Hard and soft palate

D. Epiglottis

C. Hard and soft palate

71
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Which structure drains into the inferior meatus?

A. Frontal sinus

B. Maxillary sinus

C. Nasolacrimal duct

D. Sphenoid sinus

C. Nasolacrimal duct

72
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Olfaction is mediated by:

A. CN II

B. CN I

C. CN V1

D. CN VII

B. CN I

73
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General sensation from the anterior nasal cavity is primarily carried by:

A. V1

B. V2

C. V3

D. IX

A. V1

74
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General sensation from the posterior nasal cavity is primarily carried by:

A. V1

B. V2

C. V3

D. VII

B. V2

75
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Which structure is part of the oropharynx?

A. Nasal concha

B. Tongue

C. Cochlea

D. Retina

B. Tongue

76
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Motor innervation to most tongue muscles is provided by:

A. CN IX

B. CN X

C. CN XI

D. CN XII

D. CN XII

77
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Which tongue muscle is NOT innervated by CN XII?

A. Genioglossus

B. Hyoglossus

C. Styloglossus

D. Palatoglossus

D. Palatoglossus

78
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Taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue travels through:

A. Glossopharyngeal nerve

B. Lingual nerve

C. Chorda tympani

D. Hypoglossal nerve

C. Chorda tympani

79
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General sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue travels through:

A. Chorda tympani

B. Lingual nerve

C. Glossopharyngeal nerve

D. Vagus nerve

B. Lingual nerve

80
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Taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue is carried by:

A. VII

B. IX

C. X

D. XII

B. IX

81
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Which artery supplies the tongue?

A. Facial

B. Maxillary

C. Lingual

D. Ophthalmic

C. Lingual

82
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Parasympathetic secretomotor innervation to the submandibular gland is provided by:

A. CN IX

B. CN X

C. Chorda tympani

D. CN XII

C. Chorda tympani

83
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Parasympathetic secretomotor innervation to the parotid gland is provided by:

A. CN III

B. CN VII

C. CN IX

D. CN XII

C. CN IX

84
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The hard palate is formed by the:

A. Hyoid bone

B. Mandible

C. Maxilla and palatine bones

D. Sphenoid

C. Maxilla and palatine bones

85
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Which tonsil is located in the roof of the nasopharynx?

A. Lingual

B. Palatine

C. Pharyngeal

D. Tubal only

C. Pharyngeal

86
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The pharyngeal constrictor muscles function to:

A. Elevate the tongue

B. Propel food during swallowing

C. Open the pupil

D. Elevate the mandible

B. Propel food during swallowing

87
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Which laryngeal cartilage forms the "Adam's apple"?

A. Cricoid

B. Epiglottis

C. Thyroid

D. Arytenoid

C. Thyroid

88
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Which intrinsic laryngeal muscle abducts the vocal folds?

A. Lateral cricoarytenoid

B. Thyroarytenoid

C. Posterior cricoarytenoid

D. Vocalis

C. Posterior cricoarytenoid

89
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Which nerve supplies most intrinsic muscles of the larynx?

A. External laryngeal nerve

B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve

C. Glossopharyngeal nerve

D. Hypoglossal nerve

B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve

90
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Which intrinsic laryngeal muscle is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve?

A. Vocalis

B. Thyroarytenoid

C. Cricothyroid

D. Posterior cricoarytenoid

C. Cricothyroid

91
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A patient cannot abduct the vocal folds after thyroid surgery. Which nerve was most likely injured?

A. Facial nerve

B. External laryngeal nerve

C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve

D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve

92
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During swallowing, elevation of the soft palate serves to:

A. Open the larynx

B. Close the nasopharynx

C. Depress the mandible

D. Open the auditory tube

B. Close the nasopharynx

93
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(2nd Order) A patient presents with inability to wrinkle the forehead, incomplete eye closure, and drooping of the mouth on one side. Which nerve is affected?

A. CN V3

B. CN VII

C. CN IX

D. CN XII

B. CN VII

94
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(2nd Order) Loss of sensation over the cheek and upper lip would most likely involve:

A. V1

B. V2

C. V3

D. VII

B. V2

95
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(2nd Order) A patient cannot move the right eye laterally. Which structure is likely damaged?

A. Superior oblique

B. CN III

C. CN VI

D. CN IV

C. CN VI

96
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(3rd Order) A fracture of the skull damages a nerve passing through foramen ovale. Which deficit is most likely?

A. Loss of smell

B. Loss of facial expression

C. Weakness of mastication

D. Deafness

C. Weakness of mastication

97
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(3rd Order) A lesion affecting the otic ganglion would most directly decrease secretion from the:

A. Lacrimal gland

B. Sublingual gland

C. Submandibular gland

D. Parotid gland

D. Parotid gland

98
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(3rd Order) A patient develops an epidural hematoma after head trauma. Which sequence best explains the injury?

A. Pterion fracture → middle meningeal artery rupture

B. Cribriform fracture → CN I injury

C. Jugular foramen fracture → CN X injury

D. Hypoglossal canal fracture → tongue weakness

A. Pterion fracture → middle meningeal artery rupture

99
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(3rd Order) A tumor compresses the superior orbital fissure. Which combination of cranial nerves is most likely affected?

A. II, VII, VIII

B. III, IV, V1, VI

C. V2, V3, VII

D. IX, X, XI

B. III, IV, V1, VI

100
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(3rd Order) A patient loses lacrimation while salivary secretion from the parotid gland remains intact. Which parasympathetic pathway is most likely disrupted?

A. CN IX → otic ganglion

B. CN III → ciliary ganglion

C. CN VII → pterygopalatine ganglion

D. CN X → thoracic plexus

C. CN VII → pterygopalatine ganglion