Lecture 16: Alpha-Blockers & Adrenergic Neuronal Inibitors

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82 Terms

1
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Which drugs are nonselective α1 and α2 blockers?

- phenoxybenzamine

- phentolamine

2
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Which drugs are selective α1 blockers?

- prazosin

- terazosin

- doxazosin

- tamsulosin

3
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What is the general mechanism of action of alpha-adrenergic blockers?

inhibition of vascular and other peripheral α-adrenergic receptors

4
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How do alpha blockers decrease blood pressure?

decrease peripheral vascular resistance by inhibiting α1-mediated arterial vasoconstriction, causing vasodilation

5
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Which alpha blocker causes noncompetitive, irreversible inhibition?

phenoxybenzamine

6
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What are the characteristics of phenoxybenzamine's receptor blockade?

slow onset and irreversible action

(synthesis of new receptors can restore a-adrenergic functions)

7
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What type of receptor inhibition is produced by alpha blockers other than phenoxybenzamine?

competitive, reversible inhibition

(relatively fast onset)

8
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What causes most adverse effects of alpha blockers?

excessive loss of normal α-receptor functions throughout the body

9
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What are the local adverse effects of alpha blockers?

- nasal congestion (due to dilation of vessels in nasal mucosa)

- difficulty with ejaculation

10
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What are the systemic adverse effects of alpha blockers?

- reflex tachycardia

- systemic extracellular fluid retention

- orthostatic hypotensive symptoms

11
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What type of alpha blocker is phenoxybenzamine?

long-acting, irreversible, nonselective α1 and α2 antagonist

12
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What is the primary therapeutic use of phenoxybenzamine?

pheochromocytoma

(prior to surgery or in inoperable patients)

13
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What symptoms of pheochromocytoma are treated with phenoxybenzamine?

sweating and hypertension

14
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Why is phenoxybenzamine preferred over other alpha blockers for pheochromocytoma?

blocks both α receptors and produces irreversible, noncompetitive inhibition

15
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What additional drug class should be used with phenoxybenzamine in pheochromocytoma?

nonselective beta blocker

16
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What is the mechanism of action of phentolamine?

short-acting, reversible antagonist of α1 and α2 receptors

17
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What test has historically been used to diagnose pheochromocytoma?

phentolamine-blocking test

(no replaced by measurement of catecholamines in plasma and urine)

18
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How is phentolamine used during pheochromocytoma surgery?

prevention and management of hypertensive episodes caused by stress or tumor manipulation

(MAIN USE)

19
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Which alpha blocker is used to manage norepinephrine extravasation?

phentolamine

(prevention and treatment of dermal necrosis)

20
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What is the role of phentolamine in local anesthesia?

reverses effects of local anesthesia (helpful in pediatric dental procedures)

21
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What off-label hypertensive condition can phentolamine treat?

hypertensive crisis associated with catecholamine excess

22
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What is the prototype selective α1-adrenergic blocker?

prazosin

23
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What is the primary cardiovascular use of prazosin?

mild to moderate primary hypertension

24
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Is prazosin recommended as monotherapy for hypertension?

no - should be used with diuretics, beta blockers, or other antihypertensive agents

25
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Why may diuretics be useful when combined with prazosin?

help manage fluid retention and edema

26
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In which patients may prazosin be particularly attractive for hypertension?

patients with concurrent benign prostatic hyperplasia

27
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What peripheral vascular condition can prazosin treat off-label?

Raynaud phenomenon

28
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When is prazosin considered for Raynaud phenomenon?

patients resistant to initial treatment with calcium channel blockers

29
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What psychiatric condition can prazosin treat off-label?

PTSD-related nightmares and sleep disruption

(likely due to inhibition of central α1 receptors)

30
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What is the major initial adverse effect of prazosin?

orthostatic hypotension with syncope (first-dose phenomenon)

31
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When should the initial dose of prazosin usually be administered?

at bedtime to avoid syncope reaction

32
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How can orthostatic symptoms associated with prazosin be prevented?

gradual dose titration

33
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What fluid-related adverse effect can prazosin cause?

systemic extracellular fluid retention (when diuretics are not included)

34
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How does prazosin compare with nonselective alpha blockers regarding reflex tachycardia?

causes less reflex tachycardia

35
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what are newer α1 blockers that are almost identical to prazosin regarding MOA, SEs, and uses?

doxazosin and terazosin

36
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how are doxazosin and terazosin different than prazosin?

doxazosin and terazosin have a much longer half life

(may be better for compliance for long-term control of HTN)

37
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What are the therapeutic uses of doxazosin and terazosin?

hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia

38
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What additional potential mechanism do doxazosin and terazosin have in the prostate?

induction of apoptosis in prostate smooth muscle cells

(gradually reduces size of prostate)

39
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Is prostate smooth muscle apoptosis caused by α1 receptor antagonism?

no, it is an additional mechanism unrelated to α1 blockade

40
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What structural component is associated with prostate smooth muscle apoptosis from doxazosin and terazosin?

quinazoline moiety

41
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How do α1 blockers improve urinary symptoms in BPH?

relax smooth muscle of the bladder neck and prostatic urethra to alleviate obstructive urinary symptoms

42
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Which long-acting α1 blockers are preferred for BPH?

doxazosin and terazosin

43
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Which α1A subtype-selective antagonists are preferred for BPH?

tamsulosin

44
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Which receptor subtype is primarily found in smooth muscle of the bladder neck and prostate?

α1A receptor

45
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What is the mechanism of action of tamsulosin?

selective blockade of α1A receptors

46
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What is the primary therapeutic use of tamsulosin?

benign prostatic hyperplasia

47
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How does tamsulosin compare with other α1 blockers regarding systemic adverse effects?

less frequent and/or less severe systemic adverse effects

(little effect on BP)

48
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Which α1 blocker may be preferred for a patient with BPH but no hypertension?

tamsulosin

49
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Do tamsulosin and silodosin require dose titration?

no

50
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What is the major adverse effect of tamsulosin?

abnormal/retrograde ejaculation

(due to block fo alpha-1A receptors in vas deferens)

51
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Which drugs are centrally acting adrenergic neuronal inhibitors?

- methyldopa

- clonidine

- guanfacine

52
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What is the mechanism of action of centrally acting adrenergic neuronal inhibitors?

agonism of α2 receptors in the CNS

(more prominent effects at CNS sites rather than peripheral)

53
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How do centrally acting α2 agonists affect sympathetic nervous system activity?

decrease sympathetic activity

54
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Where do centrally acting α2 agonists act to reduce sympathetic outflow?

vasomotor centers in the CNS

(decreasing sympathetic outflow to peripheral organs)

55
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How do centrally acting α2 agonists affect normal reflex-mediated changes in sympathetic outflow?

little interference

56
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What is the mechanism of action of methyldopa?

prodrug converted to α-methylnorepinephrine, which acts as a central α2 adrenergic agonist

57
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Which enzymes convert methyldopa to α-methylnorepinephrine?

enzymes involved in the conversion of DOPA to dopamine and norepinephrine

58
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How is α-methylnorepinephrine handled after its formation?

stored similarly to norepinephrine in the vesicles

59
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How does methyldopa affect sympathetic nerve activity?

decreases sympathetic outflow to peripheral cardiovascular tissues

60
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What cardiovascular and renal effects result from methyldopa?

- decreased renin release

- decreased heart rate

- decreased cardiac output

- decreased peripheral resistance

61
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What is the primary clinical use of methyldopa?

hypertension during pregnancy

62
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What common adverse effects of methyldopa are shared with other central α2 agonists?

- peripheral fluid retention

- dry mouth

- sedation

63
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What autoimmune laboratory abnormality can methyldopa cause?

positive Coombs test (strop drug if this occurs)

64
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What hepatic abnormalities can methyldopa cause?

abnormal liver function tests

(rarely severe hepatic necrosis)

65
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What is the mechanism of action of clonidine?

direct α2 adrenergic agonist

66
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How does clonidine lower blood pressure?

decreases sympathetic outflow from CNS vasomotor centers

67
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What is the primary cardiovascular use of clonidine?

primary hypertension

(not recommended as initial treatment)

68
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What formulations of clonidine are available?

immediate-release oral tablet and transdermal patch

69
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Why is clonidine transdermal patch preferred?

smoother blood pressure control and less sedation

70
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What are the most common adverse effects of clonidine?

dry mouth and sedation

(may diminish in intensity with time)

71
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What sexual adverse effect can clonidine cause?

sexual dysfunction, including erectile dysfunction in men

72
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What can happen if clonidine is abruptly discontinued?

rebound hypertension

73
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Does methyldopa produce the same rebound hypertension associated with abrupt clonidine withdrawal?

no because it is incorporated in the vesicles

74
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What neurodevelopmental condition can clonidine treat?

ADHD (last choice)

75
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How is clonidine used in pain management?

epidural administration to inhibit release of NT in afferent pain fibers

76
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What substance withdrawal condition can clonidine treat off-label?

opioid withdrawal

77
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What menopausal symptoms can clonidine treat off-label?

vasomotor symptoms

78
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Which formulation of clonidine is used to reduce postsurgical intraocular pressure?

apraclonidine eye drops

(has little or no systemic effects)

79
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What are the clinical uses of guanfacine?

primary hypertension and ADHD

80
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How does guanfacine's antihypertensive mechanism compare with clonidine?

similar central α2 agonist effects

(slightly less sedation and less tendancy toward rebound syndrome)

81
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Is guanfacine recommended as initial therapy for hypertension?

no

82
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In which ADHD patients is guanfacine generally reserved?

children/adolescents who respond poorly to or experience adverse effects from stimulants or atomoxetine