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What is the primary purpose of a psychiatric interview?
To obtain a complete biopsychosocial picture of the patient.
How does a psychiatric interview differ from a general medical interview?
It places greater emphasis on psychosocial stressors, relationships, coping, and overall social/occupational functioning.
What is the significance of the initial psychiatric interview?
It sets the tone for future treatment and establishes rapport and trust.
What type of questions should be used to start a psychiatric interview?
Open-ended questions.
What does the Mental Status Examination (MSE) begin with?
It begins from the moment the interview starts.
What is the technique of reflection in psychiatric interviewing?
Restating or summarizing what the patient is communicating.
What is the purpose of clarification during an interview?
To ask the patient to explain something that is unclear.
What does gentle confrontation involve?
Respectfully pointing out inconsistencies or conflicting statements.
What does the acronym AMPS stand for in psychiatric review?
Anxiety, Mood, Psychosis, Substance use.
What screening tool may be used for assessing anxiety?
GAD-7.
What is the PHQ-9 used for?
To screen for depression.
What should be assessed regarding substance use?
Specific substance, amount, frequency, duration, and effects on relationships and functioning.
What is included in the past psychiatric history?
Previous psychiatric diagnoses, mental health providers, treatments, hospitalizations, and suicidal thoughts or attempts.
What areas are focused on in the social history?
Socioeconomic, interpersonal, legal, and developmental factors.
What does suicide assessment involve?
Incorporating suicide questions into the psychiatric interview when indicated.
What is the definition of suicide?
Intentional act of killing oneself by any means.
What is suicidal ideation?
Thinking about killing oneself.
What is the SAD PERSONS assessment scale used for?
To evaluate suicide risk based on various factors.
What scoring indicates outpatient management in the SAD PERSONS scale?
What scoring indicates the need for emergency psychiatric evaluation?
6-8 points.
What scoring indicates the need for inpatient hospitalization?
>9 points.
What demographic has a higher ratio in completed suicides?
Males, with a ratio of 4:1 compared to females.
What is a common misconception about asking patients about suicide?
That it increases the risk of suicide.
What are modifiable risk factors for suicide?
Depression coupled with severe anxiety.
What is the 10th leading cause of death in the US?
Suicide.
What demographic is more likely to be single or widowed and use lethal means for suicide?
Men
What substance misuse is more prevalent in men?
Alcoholism
What is a protective factor against suicide?
Strong religious or cultural beliefs against suicide
What type of statements indicate overt verbal cues for suicide?
Statements like 'I can't take it anymore' or 'I wish I were dead'
What are covert statements in the context of suicide risk?
Statements like 'I won't be a problem much longer' or 'Soon everything will be fine'
What is a red flag in nonverbal cues for suicide risk?
Sudden brightening of mood after starting SSRIs
What is the highest risk factor for suicide?
Confirmed access to the proposed method
What are hard methods of lethality in suicide attempts?
Using a gun, poisoning with carbon monoxide, jumping off a high place
What is the purpose of the MMSE?
To screen for cognitive impairment/dementia
What is the maximum score on the MMSE?
30 points
What does a lower MMSE score indicate?
Greater concern for cognitive impairment
What is the goal of the Collaborative Care Model?
To improve both mental and physical health outcomes through a coordinated team approach
Who oversees the patient's overall care in the Collaborative Care Model?
Primary Care Provider (PCP)
What is the role of the Behavioral Health Provider (BHP)?
To regularly follow the patient, provide brief interventions, and coordinate care
What is the role of the Psychiatric Consultant?
To provide indirect consultation, clarify diagnoses, and recommend treatment
What are the 5 Core Principles of the Collaborative Care Model?
Patient, Population, Measurement, Evidence, Accountability
What does 'measurement-based treatment to target' mean?
Using validated tools to measure symptoms and determine treatment effectiveness
What is the Treatment-to-Target Cycle?
An iterative process of establishing diagnosis, providing treatment, observing response, and refining assessment
What is the overall purpose of the Collaborative Care Model?
To expand access to evidence-based behavioral health care and improve outcomes
What is a serious suicide attempt characterized by?
High degree of intent, planning, and use of lethal methods
What is one sign of a serious suicide attempt?
Involvement of lethal or violent methods that resulted in physical injuries
What should be done if an MMSE result is abnormal?
Further evaluation should be conducted rather than automatically diagnosing dementia
What does a strong social network represent in terms of suicide risk?
A protective factor against suicide
What is one of the core principles of patient-centered collaboration?
The team works together around the patient's goals and preferences
What are the higher health risks faced by patients with severe mental illness (SMI)?
Higher rates of preventable physical illness, increased morbidity and mortality, and shorter life expectancy.
What are some common disorders classified as severe mental illness (SMI)?
Schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, bipolar disorder, and major depression.
What are common physical health concerns for patients with SMI?
Obesity/metabolic syndrome, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, respiratory disease, and infectious diseases such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C.
What are the three levels of prevention in healthcare?
Primary prevention (prevent disease), secondary prevention (screening), and tertiary prevention (manage complications).
What is an example of primary prevention?
Immunizations, smoking cessation, or lifestyle changes.
What does secondary prevention focus on?
Early detection of disease while it may still be asymptomatic, such as through screenings.
What is tertiary prevention?
Management of diagnosed diseases to prevent complications and improve quality of life.
What are some barriers to preventive care for patients with SMI?
Patient factors (e.g., cognitive impairment, adherence issues), provider factors (e.g., lack of time, knowledge), and health-system factors (e.g., limited access, high costs).
What is motivational interviewing?
A collaborative, goal-oriented approach that helps strengthen a patient's motivation for change.
What are the stages of change in motivational interviewing?
Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and relapse.
What are the four processes of motivational interviewing?
Engaging, focusing, evoking, and planning.
What metabolic risks are associated with second-generation antipsychotics?
Weight gain, insulin resistance/diabetes, dyslipidemia, and metabolic syndrome.
Which second-generation antipsychotics carry the highest metabolic risk?
Olanzapine (Zyprexa) and clozapine (Clozaril).
What screening tools are used for mental health assessment?
PHQ-9 for depression, GAD-7 for anxiety, CAGE for alcohol misuse, and MDQ for possible mania/bipolar disorder.
What is the role of cultural humility in mental health care?
Providers should self-reflect on their own beliefs and adapt care to the patient's cultural needs.
What are the five core structural competencies in healthcare?
Understanding structures that shape clinical interactions, developing an extra-clinical language of structure, rearticulating cultural presentations in structural terms, imagining structural interventions, and developing structural humility.
What are the five components of a structured cultural formulation?
Cultural identity, cultural conceptualization of distress, psychosocial stressors, cultural elements of the patient-clinician relationship, and overall cultural assessment.
How can cultural background influence mental health treatment?
It can affect how patients express mental health concerns and their understanding of illness and treatment.
What is the significance of assessing psychosocial stressors in mental health?
It helps identify both stressors and supports in the patient's life, influencing their mental health and recovery.
What is the importance of shared decision-making in preventive care?
It allows for setting priorities with the patient and addressing barriers to care effectively.
What is the impact of stigma on mental health care access?
Stigma can interfere with individuals seeking or receiving necessary care.
What is the relationship between SMI and preventive services?
Patients with SMI have higher physical disease and mortality risk but receive fewer preventive services.
What is the goal of engaging in motivational interviewing?
To build a relationship with the patient and establish a mutual agenda for change.
What does 'relapse' refer to in the stages of change?
The return to old behavior, which can occur during the change process.
What factors can influence the patient-clinician relationship?
Stereotypes, cultural misunderstandings, and differing worldviews.
Why are qualified interpreters important in clinical settings?
They help overcome language barriers that can interfere with access and quality of care.
What should a clinician do when using an interpreter?
Speak directly to the patient, maintain eye contact, and avoid slang or technical jargon.
What are social determinants of mental health?
Circumstances affecting individuals' lives, including education, occupation, food security, and healthcare access.
What is the formula to think about in culturally responsive care?
Culture + Structure + Patient's Story.
What defines pathological anxiety?
Anxiety that is persistent, excessive, and causes impairment in daily functioning.
What are common psychological symptoms of anxiety?
Excessive worry, racing thoughts, and poor concentration.
What physical symptoms can manifest in anxiety?
Muscle tension, sweating, fatigue, restlessness, and tremors.
What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
A condition characterized by excessive worry about multiple areas of life occurring most days for at least 6 months.
What are the symptoms required for a GAD diagnosis?
At least 3 symptoms including restlessness, fatigue, poor concentration, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance.
What characterizes Panic Disorder?
Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by persistent concern about future attacks.
What are common symptoms of a panic attack?
Palpitations, sweating, trembling, shortness of breath, chest pain, and dizziness.
What is Social Anxiety Disorder?
An anxiety disorder characterized by fear of embarrassment or negative evaluation in social situations.
What triggers Agoraphobia?
Fear of situations where escape may be difficult or help unavailable, often leading to avoidance of public spaces.
What defines a Specific Phobia?
An excessive fear of a specific object or situation that provokes immediate anxiety.
What is the first-line treatment for anxiety disorders?
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) and/or SSRIs/SNRIs.
What is the recommended approach when starting SSRIs?
Start low and go slow to minimize initial anxiety and side effects.
What is Buspirone effective for?
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD).
What are the risks associated with benzodiazepines?
Dependence, withdrawal, sedation, and increased risk of overdose.
What should be considered in new-onset anxiety after age 35?
An underlying medical condition should be considered.
What are common medical causes that can mimic anxiety symptoms?
Cardiovascular issues, pulmonary conditions, endocrine disorders, and neurologic problems.
What is the purpose of the DSM-5-TR?
To diagnose and classify mental disorders using specific, objective diagnostic criteria.
What are the three major parts of the DSM-5-TR?
Diagnostic Classification, Diagnostic Criteria Sets, and Descriptive Text.
What is the step-by-step process for using the DSM-5-TR?
Start with symptoms, use the index, gather information, develop a diagnosis, check criteria, and confirm.
What should be checked in the diagnostic criteria?
Symptoms, duration, and necessary rule-outs.
What is a quick diagnostic differentiation for GAD?
Worry about everything for at least 6 months with functional impairment.
What is a quick diagnostic differentiation for Panic Disorder?
Unexpected recurrent attacks with persistent concern or behavior change.