Hospital test 2 flashcards new

What is multidisciplinary teamwork

Professionals contribute from separate discipline roles

What is interdisciplinary teamwork

Professionals coordinate around shared goals and an integrated plan

What is transdisciplinary teamwork

Some roles and skills overlap or are shared appropriately

Name two enablers of effective teamwork

Clear roles and timely communication

Name two barriers to effective teamwork

Poor communication and unclear roles

What is clinical reasoning

Using information to understand a client situation and justify OT decisions

What is reflective practice

Reviewing clinical reasoning decisions and outcomes

What is reflection-in-action

Reflecting and adjusting while practice is occurring

What is reflection-on-action

Reflecting after the practice or event

What is scientific reasoning

Using evidence and structured assessment to guide decisions

Diagnostic reasoning

What is happening and why?

Interpreting findings to identify the problem.

Procedural reasoning

What assessment/intervention should I use?

Focuses on the condition, performance problems, and treatment procedures. Eg following THR precautions

Narrative reasoning

What is the experience like for this specific client?

Understanding the person's story, values roles and routines

Interactive reasoning

How do I communicate effectively with this particular client?

Building rapport and communicating collaboratively

Ethical reasoning

Considering rights, values, duties, safety, and fairness

Pragmatic reasoning

What is realistically possible?

Considering time, resources, policies, and practical constraints

Conditional reasoning

Putting it all together/

Flexible processs to predict/imagine different potential outcomes based on how known factors will interact.

What is the first OPPM step

Prioritise occupational performance issues

Why choose a theoretical approach in the OPPM

To guide assessment and intervention choices

What is assessed in the OPPM

Strengths, limitations, body functions, skills, occupations, and environment

What happens after implementing an OPPM plan

Evaluate outcomes and decide next steps

What is the purpose of OT assessment

Understand occupational performance and plan intervention

Name three OT assessment methods

Interview, observation, and standardised assessment

What does an initial OT interview explore

Usual function, current issues, goals, home context and supports

Why compare function before, and during, admission

To identify changes and likely discharge needs

Name three sources of assessment information

Client, family or carer, and the multidisciplinary team

What is a standardised assessment

A structured assessment with defined procedures and scoring

What is a non-standardised assessment

Therapist-selected interview or observation without normative comparison

What does SOAP stand for

Subjective Objective Assessment Plan

What belongs in the Subjective section

Client or carer reports, and relevant attributed statements

What belongs in the Objective section

Observable or measurable task, performance findings

What belongs in the Assessment section

Clinical interpretation of findings and their OP implications

What belongs in the Plan section

Next actions, intervention, referrals, or follow-up

What does SMART stand for

Specific Measurable Achievable Relevant and Time-framed

What does ISBAR stand for

Identify Situation Background Assessment Recommendation

Name four documentation requirements

Accuracy, objectivity, timeliness, and conciseness

How should a handwritten documentation error be corrected

Single line through the error then sign and date the correction

What are ADLs also called

Basic or personal activities of daily living

Name four ADLs

Bathing, toileting, dressing, and personal hygiene

What are IADLs

Activities supporting daily life at home or in the community

What should an OT observe during an ADL assessment

Task sequence, safety, balance, assistance, and environmental barriers

What is a hip fracture

A break in the proximal femur near the hip joint

What are the two broad hip fracture groups

Intracapsular and extracapsular

Why are intracapsular fractures concerning

They may disrupt femoral head blood supply and cause avascular necrosis

Name three femoral neck fracture locations

Subcapital, transcervical, and basicervical

Name two extracapsular hip fractures

Intertrochanteric and subtrochanteric

What are common signs of hip fracture

Hip or groin pain, inability to weight-bear, and a shortened externally rotated leg

What is the first imaging test for suspected hip fracture

X-ray

What may be used if X-ray is negative but suspicion remains for hip #

MRI or CT if MRI is unsuitable

What is ORIF

Open reduction and internal fixation using screws plates or pins

What is a hemiarthroplasty

Replacement of the femoral head while retaining the natural acetabulum

What is a total hip replacement

Replacement of the femoral and acetabular joint surfaces

What are classic posterior THR precautions

Avoid flexion over 90 degrees adduction past midline and internal rotation

Are THR precautions identical for every patient

No, they depend on approach and the surgeon's instructions

What is an anterior THR precaution caveat

Restrictions vary and may include avoiding extension and external rotation if prescribed

Why is early mobilisation encouraged after hip surgery

To restore function and reduce immobility complications

Name three equipment options after THR

Raised toilet seat, shower chair, and reacher

What is COPD

A progressive condition with persistent airflow limitation

What test is central to COPD diagnosis

Spirometry

Name four common COPD symptoms

Dyspnoea, chronic cough, sputum, and fatigue

What is a major modifiable COPD risk factor

Smoking

What is a core COPD medication class

Bronchodilators

When may antibiotics be used in COPD

For selected exacerbations when indicated rather than for all stable patients

What is pulmonary rehabilitation

A structured program to improve capacity, symptoms, and self-management

Name four pulmonary rehabilitation components

Exercise, breathing strategies, education, pacing, and psychosocial support

How can COPD affect occupational performance

Breathlessness and fatigue can limit self-care, housework, and community mobility

Name three OT strategies for COPD

Pacing, seated tasks, and task simplification

What does mMRC grade 0 mean

Breathless only with strenuous exercise

What does mMRC grade 4 mean

Too breathless to leave home or breathless when dressing

What is one MET

Approximate energy used while sitting quietly

What are the course MET ranges for light activity

About 1.6 to 3.0 METs

What are the course MET ranges for moderate activity

About 3.0 to 6.0 METs

What MET level is vigorous activity

Above 6.0 METs

What does the Borg RPE scale measure

A person's perceived exertion during activity

RPE x 10

It is a rough heart-rate estimate

What should be monitored during activity after MI

Heart rate, dyspnoea, perceived exertion, and adverse symptoms

Name three warning symptoms during cardiac activity

Chest pain, dizziness, and palpitations

What is myocardial infarction

Death of heart muscle caused by prolonged reduced blood supply.

What is angina

Temporary chest discomfort from myocardial ischaemia, without usual muscle necrosis/death

What causes Type 1 MI

Plaque rupture or erosion with coronary thrombosis

What causes Type 2 MI

An imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand

What is stable angina

Predictable symptoms often triggered by exertion and relieved by rest or prescribed GTN

Why is unstable angina an emergency

Symptoms may occur at rest or worsen and indicate high risk of MI

What causes variant angina

Coronary artery spasm

Name four possible MI symptoms

Chest pressure, dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea

Which blood test supports MI diagnosis

Cardiac troponin

What does an ECG help identify in suspected MI

Electrical changes that may indicate ischaemia or infarction

What is PCI

A catheter procedure to open a narrowed coronary artery often with a stent

What is CABG

Surgery that bypasses blocked coronary artery segments using a graft

Name three long-term cardiac risk-reduction approaches

Statins, antiplatelet therapy when indicated, and risk-factor management

What is a major nitrate medication precaution

Do not combine nitrates with PDE-5 inhibitors such as sildenafil

What does an OT do after MI

Grades activity, monitors symptoms, and teaches pacing and energy conservation

How long may recovery to usual activity take after uncomplicated MI

Around 8 to 12 weeks but individual medical advice determines timing

What is rheumatoid arthritis

A chronic systemic autoimmune inflammatory joint disease.

What joint pattern is typical in RA

Symmetrical, often affecting hands wrists and feet

How long can RA morning stiffness last

Often longer than 30 to 60 minutes

Which blood tests may support RA diagnosis

Rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP, with ESR or CRP for inflammation

Which antibody test is more specific for RA

Anti-CCP

Which finger joints are commonly affected by RA

MCP and PIP joints, while DIP involvement is less typical

What is ulnar drift

Fingers deviate toward the little-finger side at the MCP joints