APOLLON - IS (Immunosero)

Where does differentiation of T cells occur?

a. heart

b. brain

c. thymus

d. bone marrow

c. thymus

Which organs or systems are capable of responding to circulating antigens with the production of specific lymphocytes and plasma cells?

a. lymph nodes and spleen

b. pancreas and liver

C. reticuloendothelial system and biliary tract

d. bacteria and granulocytic cells

a. lymph nodes and spleen

How can cell-mediated immunity be transferred to a normal individual?

a. with lymphoid cells from a hypersensitive individual

b. with transfer of specific liver cells from an infected individual

c. with transfer of monocytes from a normal person

d. with polymorphonuclear cells from a normal person

a. with lymphoid cells from a hypersensitive individual

The first detectable antibodies in primary infections are usually

a. IgA

b. IgD

c. IgG

d. IgM

d. IgM

Which of the immunoglobulins is present in the greatest amount and rises later in un infection?

a. IgA

b. IgD

c. IgG

d. IgM

c. IgG

An IgG antibody is a good

a. indicator of early infection

b. precipitating antibody

c. indicator of allergy

d. agglutinating antibody

b. precipitating antibody

Antibodies are primarily

a. alpha globulins

b. beta globulins

c. albumin

d. gamma globulins

d. gamma globulins

Reactive sites on an antigen are known as

a. determinants

b. valence

c. haptens

d. immunoglobulins

a. determinants

Which of the following cells recognize certain substances as "foreign" (nonself)?

a. T lymphocytes

b. macrophages

c. B lymphocytes

d. basophils

c. B lymphocytes

Which of the following cells ingest and destroy bacteria, damaged host cells, or tumors?

a. macrophages

b. T cells

c. B cells

d. basophils

a. macrophages

T cells are involved with

a. humoral immunity

b. wheal and flare reaction

c. cell-mediated immunity

d. antibody protection

c. cell-mediated immunity

Humoral immune response is due to

a. macrophage activity

b. suppressor T lymphocytes

c. lymphokines

d. B lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells

d. B lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells

Which of the following cells are thymus-dependent?

a. B cells

b. T cells

c. macrophages

d. plasma cells

b. T cells

The production of antibodies by B cells is turned off by

a. suppressor T cells

b. B lymphocytes

c. helper T cells

d. cytotoxic T cells

a. suppressor T cells

Lymphokines, liberated by sensitized T cells, recruit

a. neutrophils

b. monocytes

c. macrophages

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

A heterologous antigen reacts with

a. an antibody whose production it induced

b. an antibody whose production it did not induce

c. nonspecific substances

d. specific substances

b. an antibody whose production it did not induce

Which immunoglobulin is able to cross the placenta?

a. IgA

b. IgG

c. IgD

d. IgE

b. IgG

Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions?

a. IgA

b. IgG

c. IgM

d. IgE

a. IgA

Which immunoglobulin plays a role in hypersensitivity?

a. IgM

b. IgG

c. IgE

d. IgD

c. IgE

The binding strength of an antibody for an antigen is referred to as its

a. specificity

b. affinity

c. avidity

d. titer

c. avidity

The ability of a clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologous antigen is referred to as its

a. specificity

b. sensitivity

c. affinity

d. titer

b. sensitivity

The random movement of antigen or antibody to form antigen-antibody complexes in semisolid medium occurs in

a. agglutination

b. immunofluorescence

c. complement fixation

d. gel diffusion

d. gel diffusion

Antigen and antibody are both free to move toward each other to form a precipitate in

a. two-dimensional diffusion

b. single radial diffusion

c. linear diffusion

d. three-dimensional diffusion

a. two-dimensional diffusion

A combination of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion is referred to as

a. double radial diffusion

b. immunoelectrophoresis

c. immunofluorescence

d. electro immunodiffusion

b. immunoelectrophoresis

In immunoelectrophoresis, which of the following forms at the equivalence point of antigen and antibody?

a. spurs

b. precipitin bands

c. troughs

d. line of intersection

b. precipitin bands

An electrophoretically abnormal protein displaced from the normal position may be recognized by

a. precipitin band of moderate curvature

b. lines of fusion

c. precipitin band markedly curved

d. gull wing formation

d. gull wing formation

Immunoelectrophoresis is used to identify

a. lipids

b. cholesterol

c. Bence-Jones protein

d. chorionic gonadotropin

c. Bence-Jones protein

Electroimmunodiffusion is directed movement of antigen or antigen and antibody in

a. solid media

b. semi-solid media

c. liquid media

d. any of the above

b. semi-solid media

Which of the following is an advantage of counterimmunoelectrophoresis?

a. precipitation lines not sharp

b. precipitation does not occur at the intermediate point

c. precipitation lines visible within 30 minutes

d. none of the above

c. precipitation lines visible within 30 minutes

In the radioimmunoassay test the zero standard is labeled as

a. B sub 0

b. antigen O

c. antigen X

d. B sub 1

a. B sub 0

Which of the following fluorochromes gives off a red emission at 580 nm?

a. auramine-rhodamine

b. fluorescein isothiocyanate

c. Truant fluorochrome

d. tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate

d. tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate

Which of the following fluorochromes gives a minimal false reading?

a. auramine-rhodamine

b. fluorescein isothiocyanate

c. Truant fluorochrome

d. tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate

b. fluorescein isothiocyanate

Immunofluorescence tests employ a compound that is able to absorb light of a certain wavelength and to

a. emit light of a longer wavelength

b. emit light of a shorter wavelength

c. emit white light

d. phosphoresce

a. emit light of a longer wavelength

Which of the following is the energy source of fluorescence microscopes?

a. Wood's lamp

b. brightfield microscope

c. mercury vapor lamp

d. black light

c. mercury vapor lamp

What system can be used in fluorescent staining technics to give a bright fluorescence?

a. quantum efficiency

b. biotin-avidin

c. enzyme inhibition

d. all of the above

b. biotin-avidin

In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), which of the following can be attached to a solid phase support (e.g. polystyrene)?

a. antigen and enzyme

b. antibody and albumin

c. antigen and antibody

d. antigen and albumin

c. antigen and antibody

In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the antihuman globulin is

a. fluorochrome-conjugated

b. auramine-conjugated

c. hormone-conjugated

d. enzyme-conjugated

d. enzyme-conjugated

Interferon can be produced by which of the following?

a. macrophages

b. T lymphocytes

c. virus-infected cella

d. all at the above

d. all at the above

One dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion is also known as

a. immunoelectrophoresis

b. counterimmunoelectrophoresis

c. radioimmunoassay

d. rocket electrophoresis

d. rocket electrophoresis

Which of the following is a diagnostic laboratory test for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

a. skin test

b. parasites found in stool

c. <200 CD4+ T-lymphocyted/uL or a CD4+ T-lymphocyte percentage of total lymphocytes of <14

d. differential blood count

c. <200 CD4+ T-lymphocyted/uL or a CD4+ T-lymphocyte percentage of total lymphocytes of <14

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) characteristically shows a deficiency in

a. neutrophils

b. T lymphocytes

c. B lymphocytes

d. LE cells

b. T lymphocytes

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows a change in the ratio of

a. T/B cells

b. B1/B2 cells

c. A/G

d. T4/T3 cells

d. T4/T3 cells

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is transmitted in all the following way EXCEPT

a. blood transfusion

b. sexual contact

c. sneezing and coughing

d. sharing of hyperdermic needles

c. sneezing and coughing

Fc is which fragment of the antibody molecule?

a. heavy chains

b. hinge

c. crystallizable

d. antigen-binding

c. crystallizable

The basic immunoglobulin structure consists of

a. 1 light and 2 heavy chains

b. 2 light and 2 heavy chains

c. 2 light and 1 heavy chains

d. 1 light and 1 heavy chain

b. 2 light and 2 heavy chains

In the structure of immunoglobulins, where is the antigen-binding site located?

a. carboxy terminal or constant region

b. disulfide bridge

c. amino terminal or variable region

d. all of the above

c. amino terminal or variable region

Which of the following is a proteolytic enzyme that fragments an antibody?

a. papain

b. anaphylatoxin

c. properdin

d. zymosan

a. papain

After an antibody has been fragmented, which term denotes the antigen binding fragment?

a. Fc

b. disulfide bond

c. Fab

d. carboxyl terminal

c. Fab

The antigen used in precipitation tests is

a. soluble

b. insoluble

c. particulate

d. cellular

a. soluble

A postzonal reaction is caused by

a. too little antigen

b. too much antigen

c. too much antibody

d. not by differing amounts of antigen and antibody

b. too much antigen

The optimal ratio, when the most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen, is referred to as

a. opsonization

b. zone of equivalence

c. zone of inhibition

d. Widal formation

b. zone of equivalence

When a precipitation reaction is converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the "antigen" particles, the test is then referred to as

a. direct agglutination

b. optimal agglutination

c. indirect (passive) agglutination

d. prozone reaction

c. indirect (passive) agglutination

What type of antigen-antibody reaction is usually performed in the detection of the HBs antigen of hepatitis?

a. viral hemagglutination

b. capillary precipitation

c. passive agglutination

d. hemagglutination inhibition

d. hemagglutination inhibition

Effective phagocytosis occurs in the presence of

a. reagin

b. anti-drug antibodies

c. sensitivity

d. opsonins

d. opsonins

Serological tests employed to identify antigens or antibodies are referred to as what type of test?

a. nonspecific

b. in vitro

c. in vivo

d. cross-reaction

b. in vitro

Hybridomas are formed from

a. antibodies

b. B lymphocytes

c. T lymphocytes

d. phagocytes

b. B lymphocytes

How does a spleen cell become "immortal"?

a. reacts with an epitope

b. by being phagocytized

c. by neutralization

d. by fusing with a tumor cell

d. by fusing with a tumor cell

When preparing monoclonal antibodies

a. inject an animal with an antigen

b. remove the B lymphocytes

c. fuse B lymphocytes with a malignant cell

d. all of the above

c. fuse B lymphocytes with a malignant cell

A hybridoma consists of a clone of fused cells of

a. guinea pig kidney cells

b. rat myeloma cells

c. mouse lymphocytes

d. B and C

d. B and C

Which of the following are limitations of monoclonal antibodies from a hybridoma?

a. react with only 1 antigenic determinant on a multivalent antigen

b. do not cross-link to form a precipitate

c. are not good in precipitation or hemagglutination assays

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Monoclonal antibodies cannot be used in complement fixation tests because they

a. cannot cross-link to form a precipitate

b. cannot fix complement

c. can fix complement

d. are homogeneous

b. cannot fix complement

Complement fixation tests contain which two systems?

a. antigen-antibody systems

b. ELISA and latex systems

c. test and indicator systems

d. hemolysin and titration systems

c. test and indicator systems

What is the indicator in the complement fixation test?

a. sheep red blood cells

b. human red blood cells

c. latex antigen absorbed particles

d. carbon particles

a. sheep red blood cells

Complement proteins are designated by all of the following terms EXCEPT:

a. numbers (e.g., C1, C2)

b. symbols (e.g., factor B)

c. abbreviations (e.g., Fc)

d. trivial names (e.g., properdin)

c. abbreviations (e.g., Fc)

A hemolysin is an antibody that

a. causes lysis of red blood cells

b. causes agglutination of red blood cells

c. lyses T cells

d. sensitizes white blood cells

a. causes lysis of red blood cells

What is the purpose of antisheep hemolysin in a complement fixation test?

a. sensitizes sheep red blood cells

b. hemolyzes sheep red blood cells

c. agglutinates sheep red blood cells

d. neutralizes patient antibody

a. sensitizes sheep red blood cells

A positive reaction in a complement fixation test is expressed as

a. agglutination

b. hemolysis

c. inhibition of hemolysis

d. neutralization

c. inhibition of hemolysis

What is the purpose of the hemolytic system in a complement fixation test?

a. to test the patient's serum for the presence of antibodies

b. to act as an indicator and provide a visible reaction

c. to test the red blood cells

d. to make certain that the serum is not anticomplementary

b. to act as an indicator and provide a visible reaction

If too much hemolysin is added to a complement fixation test, what happens to the result:

a. incomplete hemolysis

b. sensitivity is decreased

c. complete hemolysis

d. hemagglutination

d. hemagglutination

What should occur when controls for complement fixation tests are used to check for anticomplementary factors?

a. no hemolysis

b. hemolysis

c. hemagglutination

d. all of the above

b. hemolysis

In a positive control for complement fixation tests, what should occur?

a. no hemolysis

b. hemolysis

c. hemagglutination

d. fluorescence

a. no hemolysis

What is used to sensitize red blood cells in the complement fixation test?

a. sheep red blood cells

b. antisheep hemolysin

c. opsonins

d. horse red blood cells

b. antisheep hemolysin

In a negative complement fixation test sensitized red blood cells will

a. clump

b. not clump

c. be hemolyzed

d. not be hemolyzed

c. be hemolyzed

Antigen needles for the qualitative Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test (VDRL) should deliver

a. 1/100 (100 drops/ml)

b. 1/60 (60 drops/ml)

c. 1/120 (120 drops/ml)

d. 1/75 (75 drops/ml)

b. 1/60 (60 drops/ml)

Saline needles for the quantitative Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test (VDRL) should deliver

a. 20 drops/ml

b. 120 drops/ml

c. 100 drops/ml

d. 110 drops/ml

c. 100 drops/ml

Needles used to deliver VDRL antigen should be checked

a. once a month

b. bimonthly

c. daily or every time tests are performed

d. weekly

c. daily or every time tests are performed

VDRL antigen emulsion is stable for

a. 24 hours

b. 48 hours

c. 7 days

d. 30 days

a. 24 hours

Patients with syphilis develop an antibody response to a substance known as

a. reagin

b. complement

c. hemolysin

d. cardiolipin

d. cardiolipin

The reaction between the antibody and the antigen in the Venereal Disase Research Laboratory test (VDRL) is known as

a. precipitation

b. neutralization

c. flocculation

d. hemolysis

c. flocculation

If the interval between heating the serum for the VDRL test and testing exceeds 4 hours, the serum should be reheated at

a. 37C for 15 minutes

b. 37C for 30 minutes

c. 56C for 15 minutes

d. 56C for 10 minutes

d. 56C for 10 minutes

In the VDRL test, a zonal reaction usually appears as which of the following results?

a. reactive

b. nonreactive

c. weakly reactive

d. any of the above

c. weakly reactive

The serum antigen ratio in any VDRL test is maintained at

a. 1:2

b. 1:1

c. 2:1

d. 3:1

d. 3:1

Inactivation of sera for serological tests is performed for what purpose?

a. destruction of complement

b. increasing sensitivity of test

c. removal of particulate matter

d. restoration of refrigerated sera to an appropriate temperature for testing

a. destruction of complemen

If a VDRL test shows small clumps of antigen with many free particles, it would be reported as

a. reactive

b. nonreactive

c. biological false positive

d. weakly reactive

d. weakly reactive

How would the following VDRL quantitative test be reported?

1:1 - W

1:2 - W

1:4 - R

1:8 - R

1:16 - R

1:32 - R

1:64 - W

1:128 - N

a. Reactive 4 dils

b. Reactive 32 dils

c. Reactive 64 dils

d. cannot be reported

b. Reactive 32 dils

What role does cardiolipin play in the VDRL test?

a. it is the center for absorption of tissue lipids

b. it is related to sensitivity of the test

c. it is related to reactivity of the test

d. all of the above

c. it is related to reactivity of the test

Which of the following represents the reported titer in a quantitative VDRL test?

a. lowest dilution giving a weakly reactive result

b. lowest dilution giving a reactive result

c. highest dilution giving a weakly reactive result

d. highest dilution giving a reactive result

d. highest dilution giving a reactive result

The quantitative VDRL test is performed on all sera in which the qualitative VDRL test is

a. nonreactive

b. reactive

c weakly reactive

d. either reactive or weakly reactive

d. either reactive or weakly reactive

Which laboratory test for syphilis uses plastic coated cards?

a. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)

b. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)

c. Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody-Abs arbed (FTABS)

d. Microhemagglutination-Treponema pallicum (MHA-TP)

a. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)

Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) antigen contains cardiolipin with

a. 10% saline

b. lipoteichoic acid

c. charcoal particles

d. fluorescein isothiocyanate

c. charcoal particles

The Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test

a. uses zinc particles

b. does not require inactivation of serum

c. does not require a period of rotation

d. employs treponemal antibodies

b. does not require inactivation of serum

The Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test is rotated at what speed for what length of time?

a. 200 rpms for 10 minutes

b. 100 rpms for 8 minutes

c. 180 rpms for 4 minutes

d. 125 rpms for 2 minutes

b. 100 rpms for 8 minutes

The Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) antigen needle will deliver how many drops?

a. 60 drops per 1.00 ml

b. 60 drops per 0.50 ml

c. 100 drops per 0.50 ml

d. 100 drops per 0.25 ml

a. 60 drops per 1.00 ml

The antigen that reacts with the antibody substance in the patient's serum in the Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test is

a. sheep red blood cells

b. cardiolipin with added charcoal particles

c. cardiolipin

d. lecithin

b. cardiolipin with added charcoal particles

The Treponema pallidum Immobilization (TPI) test requires

a. reagin

b. an extract of a pathogenic treponeme

c. Treponema pallidum fixed on a slide

d. living Treponema pallidum

d. living Treponema pallidum

Which of the following serves as the absorbent in the Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Test-Absorbed (FTA-ABS) test?

a. Reiter's treponeme

b. Treponema microdentium

c. Treponema pallidum, Nichols strains

d. Treponema pertenue

a. Reiter's treponeme

The Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody-Absorbed (FTA-ABS) test is used to identify which of the following in the patient's serum?

a. treponemal antibody

b. treponemes

c. reagin

d. cardiolipin

a. treponemal antibody

The fluorescein-antihuman gamma globulin used in the FTA-ABS test

a. makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible

b. is added to the serum before the antigen is added

c. is added to the antigen before the serum is added

d. makes the antibody visible

a. makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible

The principle of the antistreptolysin O (ASO) tube test is

a. complement-fixation

b. enzyme-inhibition

c. microhemmaglutination

d. precipitation

b. enzyme-inhibition

In the classic antistreptolysin O (ASO) test, streptolysin O should not be rehydrated until it is needed because

a. There will be an increase hemolysis

b. Hemolysis will be inhibited

C. Agglutination will weaken

d. It is destroyed by oxygen

d. It is destroyed by oxygen