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327 Terms

1
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4-2-1 rule: What are the 4 heart-related emergencies to consider for a chest pain presentation?

  1. ACS

  2. Aortic dissection

  3. Pericardial effusion/tamponade

  4. Peri/myocarditis


2
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4-2-1 rule: What are the 2 lung-related emergencies to consider for a chest pain presentation?

PE and pneumothorax

3
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4-2-1 rule: What is the 1 esophagus-related emergency to consider for a chest pain presentation?

Perforation

4
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If your chest pain differential is ACS, what should you ask about? (2 things)

  • Hx of angina

  • Risk factors


5
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If your chest pain differential is aortic dissection, what should you ask about? (3 things)

RIsk factors

HTN hx

Connective tissue disease hx

6
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If your chest pain differential is pericarditis, what should you ask about? (3 things)

Positional changes

Recent viral illness

Recent vaccinations

7
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If your chest pain differential is PE, what should you ask about? (4 things)

Recent immobilisation (travel, surgery)

Calf pain

COCP

Hx of clots, self and family

8
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If your chest pain differential is Boerhaave syndrome, what should you ask about? (2 things)

Recent binge drinking

Vomiting

9
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Name some dyspnoea differentials that are cardiac in cause:

  • HF

  • CAD/ACS

  • Valvular disease

  • Arrhythmias

  • Tamponade

  • Constrictive pericarditis


10
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Name some dyspnoea differentials that are respiratory in cause:

  • Asthma

  • COPD

  • Bronchiectasis

  • PE

  • Pulmonary HTN

  • Vasculitis

  • Effusion

  • Pneumothorax

  • Pneumonia


11
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Name some other causes of dyspnoea that are less commonly thought of:

  • Acidosis

  • Thyrotoxicosis

  • Anxiety

  • Deconditioning


12
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Name 3 neuromuscular causes of dyspnoea:

  • Myasthenia gravis

  • Guillain barre syndrome

  • ALS


13
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What features in a dyspnoea hx would make you suspect exacerbation of CCF?

  • Oedema

  • Orthopnoea

  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dysponea


14
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What features in a dyspnoea hx would make you suspect arrythmia?

  • Palpitations

  • Pre-syncope or syncope


15
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What features in a dyspnoea hx would make you suspect exacerbation of COPD?

  • Smoking hx

  • Chronic cough

  • ± COPD diagnosis


16
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What features in a dyspnoea hx would make you suspect anaemia?

  • Bleeding especially melaena, haematemesis


17
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In a febrile child >3 months, how can we easily differentiate betwen infectious and non-infectious?

Fever >5 days more commonly non-infectious.

Infectious think acute onset and recent fever (<5 days)

18
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What are some autoimmune/inflammatory causes of fever in a child?

  • Kawasaki disease

  • IBD

  • SLE

  • Juvenile idiopathic arthritis


19
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If you’re doing an osce exam and the patient has really abnormal vitals, looks unwell or you’re concerned, what do you say?

  • I will do an A-E assessment

  • Ensure airway patency

  • Gain IV access

  • Start O2 therapy

  • Start fluids


20
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What is the A-E assessment?

  • Airway

  • Breathing

  • Circulation

  • Disabilities → GCS, pupils, BGL, abdo/neuro

  • Environment → temp, exposures


21
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Name 5 exam findings consistent with ACS:

  • Diaphoresis

  • Pallor

  • Dyspnoea

  • Increased cap refil time

  • S4 heart sound


22
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Name 3 exam findings consistent with Aortic dissection:

  • RR delay

  • RF delay

  • Asymmetrical BPs


23
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Name 2 exam findings consistent with Pericarditis:

Pericardial rub

Fever

24
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Name 3 exam findings consistent with PE:

  • Swollen, tender calves

  • Elevated JVP

  • SOB


25
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Name 2 exam findings consistent with pneumothorax:

  • Tracheal deviation

  • Hyper-resonance


26
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Name an exam finding that would suggest Boerhaave syndrome:

Subcutaneous emphysema

27
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Name 4 differentials for SOB, swollen legs, and reduced exercise tolerance in a 69yo:

  • Pulmonary oedema due to RHF

  • Fluid overload due to LHF

  • Distributive shock

  • Hypovolemic shock


28
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Name 2 exam findings suggestive of acute pulmonary edema:

  • Fine crackles

  • Increased WOB


29
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Name 4 exam findings suggestive of fluid overload due to LHF:

  • Elevated JVP

  • Peripheral oedema

  • Ascites

  • HTN


30
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Name 3 exam findings suggestive of distributive shock:

  • Warm peripheries

  • Wide pulse pressure

  • Tachycardia


31
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Name 5 exam findings suggestive of hypovolemic shock:

  • Increased cap refil

  • Hypotension

  • Tachycardia

  • Dry mucus membranes

  • Decreased turgor


32
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Name 5 differentials for unwitnessed fall in a 50yo M:

  • Seizure

  • Syncope

  • Hypoglycemia

  • Stroke/TIA

  • Intoxication


33
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Name 5 differentials for palpitations in a 70yoM:

  • AF

  • Atrial flutter and other arrythmias

  • Alcohol use

  • Thyrotoxicosis

  • Anxiety


34
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Name 5 differentials for beet-red urine, dysuria, and dropping BP:

  • UTI causing urosepsis

  • Nephrolithiasis

  • Cystitis

  • Pyelonephritis

  • Prostatitis


35
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If you’re asked to ASSESS a patient, what does this entail?

  1. History

  2. Examination

  3. Investigations

  4. DDx and initial management


36
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If you’re asked to REVIEW a patient, what does this entail?

  1. Check notes

  2. Hx

  3. Examination

  4. Investigations

  5. Review management ± make any changes


37
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If you’re asked to MANAGE a patient, what does this entail?

  1. History

  2. Examination

  3. Investigations

  4. Immediate management

  5. Supportive management

  6. Long term management and MDT


38
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What is the TUNA FISH mnemonic for back pain red flags?

Trauma

Unexplained weight loss

Neuro sx

Age >50

Fever

IVDU

Steroid use

History of cancer

39
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List the investigations to order for ?ACS:

  • Troponin and Serial Troponin

  • FBC

  • UEC

  • CXR

  • Serial ECGs


40
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Which groups are at high risk for infective endocarditis?

  • Congenital heart disease

  • Prosthetic valves

  • Hx of IE

  • IVDU


41
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What are the 2 major Duke criteria for infective endo?

  1. 2x Blood cultures positive for IE → typical microorganisms

  2. Imaging positive for IE → Echo, cardiac CT, or PET


42
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What are the minor Duke criteria for infective endo? (5)

  • Predisposing factors/RFs

  • Fever >38

  • Vascular changes (janeway/osler, emboli, haemorrhages)

  • Immune changes (glomerulonephritis, osler’s nodes, RF, roth’s spots)

  • Micro evidence (blood culture but with an uncommon bug)


43
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The Duke criteria say definite IE if which conditions are met?

  • Both major criteria

  • 1 major and 3 minor

  • 5 minor criteria


44
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What are some other lower/uncommon risk factors for Infective endo?

  • Bicuspid aortic valve

  • Mitral valve prolapse

  • Calcific aortic stenosis


45
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When is a TOE indicated for investigation of infective endo?

  • Current prosthetic valve

  • Positive or inconclusive TTE

  • Negative TTE but high suspicion of IE


46
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What are the main complications of infective endocarditis?

  • Ongoing infection → abscess, fistula, enlarging vegetations

  • Haemodynamic deterioration → HF, valvular regurg, obstruction

  • Emboli


47
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In a patient with infective endocarditis, when would you suspect perivalvular extension?

  • Ongoing unexplained fever

  • New AV block


48
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What are some neurological complications of infective endocarditis?

• Ischaemic strokes

• Transient ischaemic attack

• intracerebral or subarachnoid haemorrhage,

• brain abscess,

• meningitis

• toxic encephalopathy

49
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___ infarcts are common and usually asymptomatic in infective endocarditis. What would make you concerned about this?

Splenic

  • Recurrent fever

  • Abdo pain

  • Bacteraemia

Suggests splenic abscess or rupture secondary to it


50
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What are 3 cardiac complications of infective endocarditis?

  • Myocarditis due to abscess or immune rxn

  • Pericarditis due to inflammation

  • Arrythmias eg) AF, Ventricular


51
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Infective endocarditis can present with mainly ____ manifestations and antibody positivities

Rheumatological

52
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What patients need urgent ssurgery to manage infective endo?

  • Severe obstruction causing HF or fall in EF shown on echo

  • Uncontrolled infection eg) abscess, false aneurysm

  • Weird bugs

  • Prosthetic valve not responding to antibiotics


53
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IVDU-associated infective endo is typically ___-sided.

What organism is usually responsible?

Right

S. aureus

54
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What pathogen causes rheumatic fever/RHD?

Strep A

55
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Strep A is a gram ____. What shape?

Positive

Coccus

56
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Name 2 non-invasive strep A clinical syndromes:

Skin infection

Pharyngitis

57
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Name 4 invasive strep A clinical syndromes:

Bacteraemia/Septicaemia

Necrotising fasciitis

Bone/joint infection

Empyema

Meningitis

58
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Name 2 toxin-mediated strep A clinical syndromes:

Toxic Shock syndrome

Scarlet fever

59
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Name 3 immune-mediated strep A clinical syndromes:

Rheumatic fever

Rheumatic heart disease

Glomerulonephritis

60
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Standard investigations (2) for strep A infection

Culture and serology

61
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With group A strep, ___ is the gold standard for investigation. It is most useful for ___ infection, and not as effective for ____

Culture

Acute

Post-infection complications

62
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Group A strep colonizes the throat in ____% of the population

5-15%

63
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___ is the most useful investigation for post-infectious complications of group A strep

Serology

64
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Which serology is used for group A strep? (2 things)

Anti-Streptolysin O (ASOT) → 3-6 weeks post-infection

Anti-DNase B → 6-8 weeks post-infection

65
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What are the 5 major manifestations of rheumatic fever? ACESS

Arthritis

Carditis

Erythema marginatum

Subcut nodules

Sydenham chorea

66
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What is the classic arthritis pattern for rheumatic fever?

Asymmetric

Migratory

Large joints especially knees and ankles

Polyarthritis

67
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What clinical features would suggest carditis secondary to rheumatic fever?

  • Murmur

  • Cardiomegaly

  • Cardiac decompensation

  • Pericardial friction rub


68
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Carditis in rheumatic fever is mainly due to inflammation of the ____. It mainly causes ___ -sided valve issues

Endocardium

Left

69
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What would the ECG and echo show with rheumatic-fever induced carditis:

Ecg → Prolonged PR interval, ± 2nd degree heart block

Echo → Valvulitis

70
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If other causes of ___ are excluded, this feature is diagnostic for acute rheumatic fever

Chorea

71
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Name the 4 clinical signs of ARF-induced chorea:

  • Milkmaid’s grip

  • Spooning

  • Pronator sign

  • Darting tongue


72
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Subcut nodules in ARF usually occur in which areas?

Extensor surfaces

Elbows, wrists, knees, ankles, achilles, cervical vertebrae

73
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List some differentials for ARF:

  • Septic arthritis

  • Reactive arthritis

  • Congenital heart disease

  • Infective endocarditis

  • SLE

  • Encephalitis


74
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What are the main investigations for ARF?

Bedside → ECG

Labs → FBC, ESR/CRP, ASOT, AntiDNAB

Imaging → Echo

75
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Management of group A strep infection:

Penicillin, single IM dose or 10 days PO dose

Cephalexin or Azithromycin if allergy

76
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Management of arthritis caused by ARF:

Paracetamol and NSAIDs

77
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Management of chorea in ARF:

Carbamazepine

Valproate

Steroids

78
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Management of carditis in ARF:

Diuretics

ACEi

79
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Rheumatic heart disease has peak prevalence age:

30-40

80
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Which valve is the most commonly affected in RHD?

Mitral

81
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Name 5 clinical features of rheumatic heart disease:

  • Asymptomatic

  • Dyspnoea

  • Fatigue

  • Weakness

  • Angina

  • Syncope


82
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Signs of rheumatic heart disese:

  • Murmur

  • Heart failure

  • Arrhythmia


83
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What is the gold standard to diagnose RHD?

Echocardiograph

84
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Primary prevention of RHD:

  • Recognize and treat Strep A infection before they can cause ARF/RHD

  • Treat strep throat with antibiotics (penicillin or cephalexin)


85
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Describe the secondary prevention of RHD:

Consisent and regular administration of abx to people who have had ARF/RHD to prevent recurrence and limit RHD progression


IM benzathine penicillin G

86
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What drug is used for secondary prevention of RHD?

IM benzathine penicillin G

87
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How long is the prophylaxis for secondary prevention of RHD?

If possible ARF with no cardiac involvement → 12 months

If probable ARF based on echo → minimum 5 years or until age 21

If definite ARM based on echo → as above

88
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What is ethnomedicine?

Translating health-related knowledge and theories that people inherit by living in a culture.

Causes of illness, health seeking behaviour, diagnosis and tx

89
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Migrant and refugee women are at greater risk of what 3 things?

  • Poor maternal and child health outcomes

  • Contracting STIs

  • Experiencing FDV


90
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What is type 1 female genital cutting/mutilation?

Part of or all of cl*toris is removed

91
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What is type 2 female genital cutting/mutilation?

Most of cl*toris removed, and some of or all of the l*bia min*ra

Most common form (80%)

92
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What is type 3 female genital cutting/mutilation?

Cl_toris, la*bia min*ra, and la*bia maj*ora (most of or part of)

93
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What is type 4 female genital cutting/mutilation?

All other procedures for non-medical reasons. Including pricking/incising, stretching, cauterization of cl*toris, introduction of corrosive substances

94
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95
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What are some immediate complications of FGM?

  • Pain

  • Haemorrhage

  • Infection/sepsis

  • Death

  • Psychological trauma

  • Swelling

  • Urinary retention

  • Incontinence


96
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What are some long term complications of FGM?

  • Keloid scars, abscesses and painful cysts.

  • Severe pain, Vulvodynia, Dyspareunia, Chronic Pelvic Pain.

  • Psychological trauma, PTSD, Depression and Anxiety

  • Vaginal retention of menstrual blood. Painful periods.

  • Voiding dysfunction, incomplete emptying, urinary infections, bladder stretch, urinary retention, incontinence

  • Infertility.

  • Decreased access to preventative health care eg. Cervical Cancer screening

  • Decreased sexual arousal, pleasure.


97
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Urological complications of FGM:

  • Recurrent UTIs especially type ¾

  • LUTS esp. frequency and uregency

  • Urinary retention

  • Urogenital fistula

  • Meatus stenosis


98
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Obstetric complications of FGM:

  • Obstetric fistulas

  • PPH

  • Perinatal mortality increased (55% in type 3)

  • Newborns needing resus (>66%)


99
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What is the LIVES model for trauma-informed care?

Listen

Inquire

Validate

Enhance safety

Support with referral

100
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What is de-infibulation? When is it indicated?

Surgical procedure to re-open the va*ginal opening

Indicated for women with LUTS/UTIs, dyspareunia