Pharm: HTN

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137 Terms

1
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What are the 4 major medication categories used to treat hypertension?

Adrenergic drugs (SNS), RAAS drugs, vasodilators, and diuretics.

2
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What determines arterial blood pressure?

Cardiac output × peripheral vascular resistance.

3
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What factors determine cardiac output?

Heart rate, contractility, blood volume, and venous return.

4
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What primarily determines peripheral vascular resistance?

Arteriolar constriction.

5
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What is normal blood pressure?

Less than 120 systolic AND less than 80 diastolic.

6
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What is elevated blood pressure?

120–129 systolic AND less than 80 diastolic.

7
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What is Stage 1 hypertension?

130–139 systolic OR 80–89 diastolic.

8
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What is Stage 2 hypertension?

140 or higher systolic OR 90 or higher diastolic.

9
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What is a hypertensive crisis?

Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120 mmHg.

10
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What lifestyle changes can help lower blood pressure?

Reduce salt, eat a balanced diet, maintain healthy weight, exercise, limit alcohol, and do not smoke.

11
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Which beta blockers are reviewed in this lecture?

Metoprolol and propranolol.

12
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What is the MOA of beta blockers?

Block beta receptors.

13
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What are therapeutic uses of beta blockers?

HTN, HF, post-MI, migraine, angina, and dysrhythmias.

14
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What cardiovascular adverse effects can beta blockers cause?

Bradycardia and low blood pressure.

15
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What respiratory adverse effect can beta blockers cause?

Bronchospasm.

16
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How can beta blockers affect recognition of hypoglycemia?

They can mask blood sugar-related symptoms.

17
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What CNS effects can beta blockers cause?

Depression, insomnia, and vivid dreams.

18
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What sexual adverse effect can beta blockers cause?

Sexual dysfunction.

19
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What drug class can interact with beta blockers?

Calcium channel blockers (CCBs).

20
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What should the nurse check before administering a beta blocker?

Heart rate.

21
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Should beta blockers be stopped abruptly?

No. Avoid abrupt discontinuation.

22
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What alpha blocker is reviewed in this lecture?

Prazosin.

23
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What is the MOA of prazosin?

Blocks alpha receptors.

24
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What are therapeutic uses of prazosin?

HTN (rarely used) and BPH.

25
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What is a major adverse effect of alpha blockers?

Orthostatic hypotension.

26
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What is the first-dose effect of alpha blockers?

Significant orthostatic hypotension can occur with the first dose.

27
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What cardiovascular response can occur with alpha blockers?

Reflex tachycardia.

28
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What should patients taking alpha blockers be taught?

Monitor for and take precautions against orthostatic hypotension.

29
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What central alpha-2 agonist is reviewed in this lecture?

Clonidine.

30
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What is the MOA of clonidine?

Activates alpha-2 receptors, decreasing sympathetic outflow.

31
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What are therapeutic uses of clonidine?

Resistant HTN and CNS indications.

32
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What are adverse effects of clonidine?

Dry mouth, sedation, rebound hypertension, and minimal orthostatic hypotension.

33
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What happens if clonidine is abruptly discontinued?

Rebound hypertension can occur.

34
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What important teaching applies to clonidine?

Do not abruptly discontinue it; patch issues are common.

35
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What does RAAS stand for?

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

36
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What ACE inhibitor is the prototype?

Lisinopril (Zestril).

37
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What is the MOA of lisinopril?

Blocks ACE, decreasing angiotensin II production and aldosterone release.

38
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What are the indications for lisinopril?

HTN, HF, post-MI, nephropathy, and diabetic retinopathy.

39
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What are major adverse effects of lisinopril?

Angioedema, cough, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, rash, loss of taste, and increased serum creatinine.

40
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What electrolyte changes can ACE inhibitors cause?

High potassium and low sodium.

41
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What renal laboratory value may increase with ACE inhibitors?

Serum creatinine.

42
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When are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in pregnancy?

Second and third trimesters.

43
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What renal condition contraindicates ACE inhibitor use?

Bilateral renal artery stenosis.

44
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What previous reaction contraindicates ACE inhibitor use?

History of angioedema.

45
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What should a patient do if angioedema occurs while taking an ACE inhibitor?

Seek treatment immediately and never take the medication again.

46
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What should be closely monitored with ACE inhibitors?

Renal function, especially in patients with HF.

47
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What ARB is the prototype?

Losartan (Cozaar).

48
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What is the MOA of losartan?

Directly blocks angiotensin II receptors.

49
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What are the therapeutic uses of ARBs?

Same as ACE inhibitors.

50
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How do ARB adverse effects compare with ACE inhibitors?

Similar, but ARBs cause less cough and hyperkalemia; angioedema risk is the same.

51
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What are the nursing implications for ARBs?

Same as ACE inhibitors.

52
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How do ACE inhibitors and ARBs affect glomerular filtration pressure?

They decrease glomerular filtration pressure.

53
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What are the prototype aldosterone antagonists?

Eplerenone (Inspra) and spironolactone.

54
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What other drug class are aldosterone antagonists considered?

Potassium-sparing diuretics.

55
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What is the MOA of aldosterone antagonists?

Block aldosterone effects at the collecting tubule.

56
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What does aldosterone normally do in the collecting tubule?

Increases Na+ and H2O reabsorption and increases K+ excretion.

57
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What are therapeutic uses of aldosterone antagonists?

HTN and HF.

58
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What is the major electrolyte adverse effect of aldosterone antagonists?

Hyperkalemia.

59
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What renal laboratory value can increase with aldosterone antagonists?

Serum creatinine.

60
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When should serum creatinine and potassium be checked after starting an aldosterone antagonist?

Within the first week.

61
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What steroid receptor-mediated adverse effects can aldosterone antagonists cause?

Hirsutism, gynecomastia, impotence, and menstrual irregularities.

62
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What should patients taking aldosterone antagonists avoid?

Potassium supplements and potassium-containing foods.

63
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Why should potassium supplements be avoided with aldosterone antagonists?

They increase the risk of hyperkalemia.

64
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What direct renin inhibitor is the prototype?

Aliskiren (Tekturna).

65
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What is the MOA of aliskiren?

Directly blocks renin, decreasing angiotensin II production.

66
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What is the therapeutic use of aliskiren?

Hypertension.

67
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What are adverse effects of aliskiren?

Hyperkalemia, low-risk angioedema/cough, and dose-dependent diarrhea.

68
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What should patients taking aliskiren avoid?

Potassium sources such as supplements and salt substitutes.

69
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What adverse effects are shared by many RAAS drugs?

Kidney effects, hyperkalemia, angioedema, and possible cough.

70
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What pregnancy concern is associated with RAAS drugs?

They are potentially teratogenic and should be avoided in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters.

71
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What electrolyte abnormality is especially important with RAAS drugs?

Hyperkalemia.

72
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What two types of calcium channel blockers are discussed?

Non-dihydropyridines and dihydropyridines.

73
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What is the prototype non-dihydropyridine CCB?

Verapamil (Calan).

74
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What is the MOA of verapamil?

Blocks calcium channels in both blood vessels and the heart.

75
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What are the therapeutic uses of verapamil?

HTN, angina, and dysrhythmias.

76
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What are adverse effects of verapamil?

Constipation, dizziness, flushing, headache, and partial or complete AV block.

77
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What is the serious cardiac adverse effect of verapamil?

Partial or complete AV block.

78
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When should verapamil never be used?

Sick sinus syndrome or 2nd- or 3rd-degree heart block.

79
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What substances/drugs interact with verapamil?

Grapefruit juice, beta blockers, and digoxin.

80
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What should patients taking verapamil avoid?

Grapefruit juice.

81
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What medication safety issue exists with verapamil?

Immediate-release and extended-release products can be mixed up.

82
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What pharmacokinetic issue occurs with verapamil?

High first-pass effect.

83
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What is the prototype dihydropyridine CCB?

Nifedipine (Adalat).

84
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What is the MOA of nifedipine?

Blocks calcium channels in blood vessels with little to no effect on the heart.

85
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What are the therapeutic uses of nifedipine?

HTN and angina.

86
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What are adverse effects of nifedipine?

Reflex tachycardia, flushing, headache, dizziness, peripheral edema, and gingival hyperplasia.

87
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What important adverse effect should patients taking nifedipine be warned about?

Peripheral edema.

88
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Should immediate-release nifedipine be used for hypertension?

No. Never administer immediate-release nifedipine for HTN.

89
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Can extended-release nifedipine be crushed?

No. Crushing it could be deadly.

90
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What is the main difference between verapamil and nifedipine?

Verapamil affects blood vessels AND the heart; nifedipine mainly affects blood vessels.

91
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What direct vasodilator has hydralazine as its prototype?

Direct arteriolar vasodilator.

92
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What is the MOA of hydralazine?

Directly dilates arterioles.

93
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What are the therapeutic uses of hydralazine?

HTN, HF with a nitrate, and hypertensive crisis with the IV form.

94
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What are adverse effects of hydralazine?

Reflex tachycardia, fluid retention, SLE-like syndrome, and hypotension.

95
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What symptoms of hypotension should hydralazine patients recognize?

Dizziness and lightheadedness.

96
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How can hydralazine patients reduce symptoms of hypotension?

Avoid abruptly changing from a seated to an upright position.

97
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What look-alike/sound-alike medication can be confused with hydralazine?

Hydroxyzine.

98
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What direct vasodilator is used for hypertensive emergencies?

Sodium nitroprusside.

99
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What is the MOA of sodium nitroprusside?

Directly dilates veins and arterioles.

100
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What is the therapeutic use of sodium nitroprusside?

Hypertensive emergency.