Intro to dh final

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Last updated 1:31 AM on 10/16/26
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157 Terms

1
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Which type of viral Hepatitis currently has no available vaccine?

HCV

2
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In the Universal Numbering system, tooth number, tooth number 8 is the:

Maxillary right central incisor

3
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Roles of the Dental Hygienist-The Clinician roles is best described as:

Providing clinical treatment and preventive care

4
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Type 1 latex is an immediate reaction

True

5
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In the infectious process, the place where microorganisms live and multiply is the:

Reservoir

6
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Standard precautions apply to all body fluids except sweat

True

7
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Which cardiac condition requires antibiotic prophylaxis according to AHA guidelines?

History of infective endocarditis

8
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SOAP documentation-Which of the following is an example of Assessment (A) data?

Current periodontal diagnosis of Stage II, Grade B

9
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HHV-1 (HSV-1) typically travels to and establishes a latent infection in the:

Trigeminal nerve

10
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The righting reflex is a guiding principle that an MI-proficient clinician should actively resist

True

11
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HIPAA was established in 1996 to provide federal privacy standards for health information.

True

12
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The proper setting for preventive counseling is with the patient upright and the clinician sitting face-to-face.

True

13
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Spore testing should be preformed at least once per week to verify sterilizer function

True

14
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preprocedural rinsing is used to reduce the number of microorganisms in aerosols during treatment

True

15
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Which website domain is generally considered to have the lowest credibility for health information?

.com

16
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Basic personal barrier protection includes a surgical mask, protective eyewear, amd gloves

True

17
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Tooth numbering- in the universal numbering system,the maxillary right central incisor is identified as

8

18
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Which tooth numbering system uses vertical and horizontal lines to designate the four quadrants?

Palmer

19
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All permanent dental records should be written in ink.

True

20
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In the Motivational interviewing spirit, the acronym PACE for:

partnership, acceptance, compassion, evocation

21
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A patient’s medical and dental history should be updated at every appointment.

True

22
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In the SOAP approach to systemic documentation, the O stands for objective

True

23
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SOAP documentation- which of the following is an example of procedures (P) data?

Referral to a periodontist for surgical evaluation

24
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Human Herpes Viruses-HHV-1 is most commonly associated with which clinical infection?

Herpes Labialis (cold sores)

25
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SOAP documentation- Which of the following is an example of subjective (S) data?

Patient’s chief complaint of bleeding gums

26
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Primary preventative involves clinical treatments to arrest or control disease

False

27
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The credential registered dental hygienist became the official credential of the profession between 1930 and 1950.

True

28
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Which level of evidence is considered the platinum Standard?

Meta-analysis

29
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Roles of the Dental Hygienist-The educator role is best described as:

Providing health information to promote behavior change

30
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The ADHA defines the professional dental hygienist as a primary care oral health professional

True

31
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Vital signs and head and neck examination findings are documented in which section of a SOAP note?

Objective

32
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Roles of the Dental Hygienist- The Administrator role is best described as:

Managing dental hygiene programs or business operations

33
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Tooth numbering-In the FDI Two-digit system, the maxillary right central incisor is identified as:

11

34
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Human Herpesviruses- HHV-3 is most commonly associated with which clinical infection?

Varicella-zoster (Chickenpox/Shingle)

35
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In the PICO framework for research questions, the I stands for:

Intervention

36
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Evidence-based decision making (EBDM) is a process of making the best decision based on research, professional experience, and patient preferences.

True

37
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Gravity displacement autoclaves typically require which setting for sterilization?

250 degrees F for 15-30 minutes

38
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Who was the world’s first dental hygienist, trained by Dr. Alfred Fones?

Irene Newman

39
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Tooth-numbering- In the Palmer System, the Maxillary Right Central incisor is identified as:

1 in the upper right quadrant box

40
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A patient’s education level is a reliable indicator of their personal health literacy level.

False

41
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Cold sterile (chemical liquid sterilization) is recommended:

Only when other methods of sterilization are unavailable

42
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Human Herpesviruses- HHV-8 is most commonly associated with which clinical infection?

Kaposi sarcoma

43
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Human Herpesviruses- HHV-4 is most commonly associated with which clinical infection?

Infectious Mononucleosis

44
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Change talk is recognized using the DARN acronym, where the D stands for:

Desire

45
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Systematic reviews are categorized as the diamond standard in the hierarchy of evidence.

True

46
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Plain language involves using words patients understand without talking down to them

True

47
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Which stage of Transtheoretical Model describes a patient intending to change in the next 6 months?

Contemplation

48
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Which type of supervision means the dentist has authorized the procedure but does not need to be physically present?

General

49
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Which ASA classification describes a patient with mild systemic disease and no functional limitations?

ASA II

50
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Stage 3 of an HIV infection is characterized as Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

True

51
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Critical items are patient care items that penetrate soft tissue or bone

Ture

52
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Roles of the Dental Hygienist- The Researcher role is vest described as:

Investigating oral health problems and evidence-based solutions

53
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SOAP documentation- Which of the following is an example of Objective (O) data?

Blood pressure reading of 120/80 mmHg

54
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PPE should be placed in which of the following correct sequences?

Mask, Eyewear, Gloves

55
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Which term describes the conditions where people are born and live that affect their ability to act on health messages?

Social determinants of health

56
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The OARS core skills in Motivational Interviewing include all of the following EXCEPT:

Righting reflex

57
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When communicating with infants (birth to 12 months), the clinician should primarily use:

Touch, sight, and hearing

58
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Antibiotic prophylaxis should be taken by the patient:

1 hour before the clinical appointment

59
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Antiseptic hand rub is most appropriate for hand hygiene when:

Hands are visibly soiled with blood

60
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Supragingival calculus is most frequently distributed on the lingual surfaces of the mandibular anterior teeth.

True

61
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Stages of periodontal lesion development- The established lesion is best described as:

The formation of a pocket occurs

62
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Dental stain classification - Silver amalgam restoration stain is best classified as:

Exogenous intrinsic stain

63
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Acquired pellicle is a thin, acellular tenacious film that helps regulate mineral homeostasis.

True

64
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Stages of periodontal lesion development- The Early Lesion is best described as:

Clear clinical signs of inflammation appear

65
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What is the first step in the formation of dental biofilm?

Pellicle formation

66
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What is the cottage cheese-like soft deposit composed of unorganized bacteria and food debris?

Materia alba

67
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A pseudopocket (gingival pocket) is characterized by the apical migration of the junctional epithelium

False

68
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Dental stain classification-Tobacco stain is best classified as:

Extrinsic stain

69
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Stages of periodontal lesion development- The Advanced Lesion is best described as:

The transitions from gingivitis to periodontitis occurs with bone loss

70
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A patient with less than 10% bleeding on probing (BOP) and probing depths of 3mm or less is classified as having:

Periodontal health

71
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What occurs immediately after fermentable carbohydrates are taken into the dental biofilm?

The pH of the biofilm drops

72
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Stages of periodontal lesion development - The initial lesion is best described as

The acute inflammatory response begins

73
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Smoking more than 10 cigarettes per day is considered a grade modifier that indicates a rapid rate of disease progression (Gade C)

True

74
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In the current classification system, what does the Grade of periodontitis represent?

The rate of disease progression

75
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Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for periodontal disease?

Diabetes (HbA1c levels)

76
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Which stage of periodontitis is defined by interdental clinical attachment loss (CAL) of 5 mm or greater and tooth loss of 4 or fewer teeth due to periodontitis

Stage III

77
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Which of the following is the primary source of minerals for the formation of subgingival calculus?

Gingival cervical fluid (GCF)

78
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Which of the following is the primary source of minerals for the formation of supragingival calculus?

Saliva

79
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What shape of bacteria is categorized as rod-shaped?

Bacilli

80
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Dental stain classification- Tetracycline stain is best classified as:

Endogenous intrinsic stain

81
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What is the average difference in life expectancy between nicotine users and non-users?

Shorted 10-14 years

82
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Nicotine delivery in a cigarette

0.7-2.0mg

83
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List three cardiovascular diseases and three respiratory diseases that are considered consequences of nicotine and tobacco use.

Stroke, Aortic aneurysm, coronary heart disease.

Asthma, tuberculosis, pneumonia.

84
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Principal Contributor of Environmental Tobacco Smoke exposure

Side stream smoke: the smoke that burns directly off the end of a lit cigarette

85
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Which of the following is NOT a symptom associated with Nicotine withdrawal syndrome?

Hallucinations

86
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The 5’s that comprise a brief tobacco/nicotine cessation program

Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange

87
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Which of the following is NOT a forms of FDA approved Nicotine Replacement Therapy.

Bupropion SR

88
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Caries process terms- Demineralization is best described as:

Loss of minerals from the tooth structure caused by acid

89
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CAMBRA radiographic intervals- What is the recommended radiographic interval for a Low Caries Risk patient?

12-24 months

90
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At which stage is a carious lesion considered reversible through education and remineralization strategies?

Incipient or noncavitated state

91
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Which document must be signed by the patient or guardian to demonstrate understanding of treatment risks and benefits?

The informed consent form

92
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Which of the following is a required component of the Expected Outcomes section in a written care plan?

Both A and B

93
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According to Box 23-1, adequate content for informed consent must include:

All of the above

94
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Under the ICCMS system, a patient with a moderate caries risk level is recommended to have fluoride varnish applied how many times per year?

2 times per year

95
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Which of the following is essential to the dental caries disease process?

All of the above

96
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Reassessing previous treatments goals and identifying barriers is a key objective when preparing a new care plan.

True

97
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Caries process terms- Remineralization is best described as:

Deposition of minerals back into the tooth structure

98
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Which of the following factors affects the sequence and prioritization of patient care?

All of the above

99
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What is the primary objective of developing a dental hygiene care plan?

To address identified patient needs and identify treatment options

100
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An informed refusal typically releases the dental provider from the standard of care.

False