Specifics of Anticogulant Drug Classes: Parenteral Anticoagulants and Oral Anticoagulants (Bessada)

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/65

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 9:43 PM on 10/12/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai
Chat

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

66 Terms

1
New cards

what is a side effect of ALL anticoagulants

bleeding

2
New cards

what are the 2 types of parenteral anticoagulants used mostly

unfractionated heparin (UFH) abdominal LMWH/ Enoxaparin

3
New cards

MOA of unfractionated heparin

binds to ad activates antithrombin, which in turn inactivates factor Xa and thrombin (factor lla)

4
New cards

descrive UFH VTE dosing

IV infusion ONLY--> weight-based dosing & adjusted via nomogram

5
New cards

what is a key counseling point about UFH?

can be porcine-derived so ask patients if they don't consume pork

6
New cards

describe UFH therapeutic monitoring

close monitoring required (unpredictable patient response) either via aPTT or mostly anti-Xa level

7
New cards

describe anti-Xa UFH therapeutic monitoring

provides heparin concentration using a calibration curve

-tends to be more accurate in hospitalized, acute medically ill patients

-should NOT be used after LMWH or DOAC

8
New cards

when should u measure anti-Xa levels for UFH monitoring

-prior to initiation/baseline

-evaluate response 6 hours after initiation or dose change

9
New cards

what is "heparin resistance"

some patients will have a diminished response to UFH

-suspected in patients who require > 40,000 U of UFH/24 hour period

-adjust dose based on anti-Xa concentrations

10
New cards

what are the 2 ADEs with UFH

thrombocytopenia (platelets

11
New cards

describe heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

should be suspected when 30-50% drop in platelet count but remain above 150,000

12
New cards

what is the diagnostic screening for heparin induced thrombocytopenia

4T's

-thrombocytopenia

-timing of platelet count fall (5-10 days after)

-thrombosis

-or oTher explanation for falling platelets

13
New cards

what are thr diagnostic labs for heparin induced thrombocytopenia

PF4, SRA

14
New cards

describe the treatment of heparin induced thrombocytopenia

-stop heparin products

-direct thrombin inhibitors

15
New cards

compare IV vs SQ UFH

IV only for VTE treatment

VTE prophylaxsis= SQ

16
New cards

is LMWH or UFH preferred in VTE treatment? what are the 2 exceptions of this

LMWH> UFH

unless

-poor kindey function (not renally cleared)

-has upcoming surgeries/procedures (fast off)

17
New cards

MOA of LMWH

shorter chain primarily targets factor Xa, less factor lla inhibition vs UFH

18
New cards

what are the 3 LMWHs

enoxaparin

dalteparin

tinzaparin

19
New cards

enoxaparin dose (VTE treatment)

1mg/kg BID SQ

20
New cards

describe LMWH therapeutic monitoring

monitoring is not necessary d/t predictable anticoagulant response with SQ administration

get baseline labs (CBC with platelets + SCr)

21
New cards

ADEs of LMWH

-bleeding (less than UFH)

-epidural & spinal hematomas possible if pts have epidural catheter

-thrombocytopenia, avoid with HIT hx/diagnosis

22
New cards

is LMWH safe in pregnancy?

yes, it doesn't cross the placenta

23
New cards

why is LMWH 1st line for VTE treatment

-predictable anticoagulation dose response

-lower incidence of thrombocytopenia

-reduced need for lab monitoring

-improved SC bioavailability

-dose-dependent clearance

-longer half-life

24
New cards

when are the 2 situations when UFH is preferred over LMWH

- poor kidney function (not renally cleared)

-upcoming procedures (IV can be easily turned off, faster half-life)

25
New cards

MOA of fondaparinux

selectively inhibits factor Xa activity

-no direct effect on thrombin (lla) activity

-no effect on platelet function

26
New cards

describe the clearance of fondaparinux and enoxaparin

both cleared renally

27
New cards

describe fondaparinux

-SQ

-long elimination half-life

-no specific antidote

-no routine coagulation testing required

28
New cards

when is fondaparinux generally used

in the setting of HIT (because no effect on platelets) in treatment or prophylaxis

29
New cards

what are the names of the 2 IV direct thrombin inhibitors

argatroban and bivalirudin

30
New cards

MOA of direct thrombin inhibitors

direct inhibition of factor ll (thrombin) activity

-not via antithrombin

-no effect on platelet functiion

31
New cards

describe the contraindications with direct thrombin inhibitors

-argatroban is hepatically cleared (don't use/monitor with poor liver function)

-bivalirudin is renally cleared (don't use/monitor with poor kidney function)

32
New cards

describe IV direct thrombin inhibitor VTE dosing

weight-based dosing & adjusted via nomogram (like UFH)

33
New cards

when are direct thrombin inhibitors (argatroban & bivalirudin) used

VTE treatment only in the setting of HIT

34
New cards

what are the 2 reasons why warfarin requires continuous monitoring and patient education

-narrow therapeutic index

-many food and drug interactions

35
New cards

warfarin MOA

inhibits the SNOT clotting factors and the body's natural anticoagulants (protein C and S)

36
New cards

how long until we see warfarin's full effect? why?

42-72 hours

this is how long it takes to inhibit all SNOT Factors (II takes 42-72 hours)

37
New cards

when is most thrombotic periiod (highest risk of clot) in warfarin initiation? why?

first 30 hours

not fully treated + natural anticoagulants are being inhibited (protein S inhibited in 30 hours)

38
New cards

describe the potency of the 2 warfarin isomers

the S isomer is 2-4 times more potent than the R isomer

39
New cards

describe warfarin metabolism

S isomer: CYP2C9

R isomer: CYP3A4

40
New cards

describe warfarin monitoring via PT

was historically used but every lab uses different reagents and machines so PT can vary

41
New cards

what is protothrombin time (PT)

represents the time (in secs) required for plasma to form a clot in the presence of Ca and tissue thromboplastin, which activates extrisic pathway

42
New cards

describe warfarin monitoring via INR

standardized across all labs (unlike PT)

target= 2.5 (2-3)

43
New cards

describe the frequency of outpatient INR monitoring for warfarin

-initially twice the first week

-once dose established, q 1-2 weeks until INR stabilizeed

-then check q 4-6 weeks (or q12 weeks in stable patients)

-recheck 1 week from a dosage change, then q1-2 until stabilized, then q4-6

44
New cards

describe the frequency of hospitalized INR monitoring for warfarin

most US systems check daily until the INR is in the therapeutic range for 2 consecutive days (not efficient because won't see a change in INR for a few days anyways)

45
New cards

why is the INR range for warfarin 2-3?

46
New cards

describe warfarin dosing

individualized based on desired target INR range & patient response

usually started on 5mg/day

47
New cards

what are 6 factors that warrant a lower starting dose of warfarin?

- 65+ y/o

-elevated baseline INR

-poor nutritional status

-liver disease

-genetic polymorphisms

-concurrent interacting meds (2C9, 3A4)

48
New cards

describe the PK that causes warfarin to have DDIs

Drugs inhibiting/inducing CYP 2C9, 1A2, 3A4 isoenzymes have the greatest potential to impact INR/bleeding

49
New cards

describe the PD that causes warfarin to have DDIs/FDIs

-concomitant blood thinners: Aspirin, P2Y12i

-Foods with varying amounts of vitamin K can increase/decrease INR and bleed/thrombosis risk → patient must be consistent with diet

50
New cards

which 3 drugs increase INR/anticoagulation with warfarin

amiodarone

fluconazole

sulfamethoxazole

(3A4, 2C9 inhibitors)

51
New cards

which 4 factors decrease anticoagulation/INR with warfarin

carbamazepine

phenytoin

rifampin

vitamin K

(3A4, 2C9 inducers)

52
New cards

what 3 drugs increase the bleed risk with warfarin?

aspirin

NSAIDs

blood thinners

53
New cards

ADEs of warfarin

-doesn't cause but exacerbates bleedin (GI, intracranial hemorrhage)

-warfarin-induced skin necrosis

-purple-toe syndrome

54
New cards

when are warfarin ADEs most likely to occur?

new initiation, first 24-42 hours

55
New cards

when should warfarin be taken

in the evening

56
New cards

describe patient education of warfarin

-importance and need for INR follow-up

-keep diet consistent (vitamin K foods)

-inform any HCP that they're on warfarin

-talk with pharmacist and physician before any med changes

-watch for bleeding

-be cautious of falls/hits on the head

57
New cards

how to treat pain if on warfarin

APAP! (avoid NSAIDs/aspirin because they increase your bleed risk)

58
New cards

are DOACs or VKA's preferred for VTE

DOACs

59
New cards

describe DOAC monitoring

don't require INR monitoring but require q3-6 months:

-kidney and liver function

-CBC

body weight

-DDIs

60
New cards

describe the metabolism of rivaroxaban and apixaban

CYP3A4 and P-gp substrates

61
New cards

describe the metabolism of edoxaban and dabigatran

P-gp substrates

62
New cards

P-gp/3A4 inhibitors? effect?

increase bleed risk by increasing the concentrations of DOACs

amiodarone

propafenone

quinidine

verapamil

63
New cards

P-gp/3A4 inducers? effect?

increase clot risk by increasing the concentrations of DOACs

carbamazepine

rifampin

64
New cards

what are the 4 times when DOAC should be used?

-1st line therapy for acute VTE

-normal renal and hepatic function

-less frequent monitoring

-insurance coverage

65
New cards

what are the 3 times when DOAC should be used with caution?

-poor kidney function

-poor liver function

-under/overweight

66
New cards

what are the 5 times when DOAC should not be used?

-strong CYP3A4 inhibitors/inducers

-mechanical heart valve

-rheumatic heart disease

-pregnancy

-triple-posiitbe antiphospholipid syndrome