test 2 real

The primary function of the lymphatic system is: A) the production and maturation of leukocytes. B) the transport of hormones. C) circulation of nutrients and dissolved gases. D) the production and distribution of plasma proteins. E) defending the body against both external and internal threats.

E

Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the: A) cisterna chyli. B) right lymphatic duct. C) hepatic portal vein. D) dural sinus. E) thoracic duct.

E

Lymph fluid enters the venous circulation via the: A) superior and inferior vena cava. B) brachiocephalic trunks. C) jugular veins. D) right atrium. E) subclavian veins.

E

_____ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx. A) Tonsils. B) Peyer’s patches. C) Immune complexes. D) Spleens. E) Lymph nodes.

A

Immunity that results from antibodies that pass through the placenta from mother to fetus is called _____ immunity. A) naturally acquired active. B) naturally acquired passive. C) artificially acquired passive. D) innate. E) artificially acquired active.

B

An inflammatory response is triggered when: A) blood flow to an area increases. B) red blood cells release pyrogens. C) T cells release interferon. D) mast cells release histamine and heparin. E) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.

D

Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are: A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

C

Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called _____ immunity. A) passive. B) innate. C) natural passive. D) auto. E) active.

B

The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would: A) produce a fever. B) cause inflammation. C) activate complement. D) opsonize pathogens. E) activate antibodies.

A

The only cells that directly attack and kill other cells as part of cellular immunity are the _____ cells. A) dendritic. B) cytotoxic T. C) helper T. D) plasma. E) suppressor T.

B

The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to: A) a cell surface antigen. B) the plasma membrane of bacteria. C) two antibodies attached to an antigen. D) the cell wall of bacteria. E) a plasma protein.

C

Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by: A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) skin defenses. D) immunological surveillance. E) fever.

B

_____ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time. A) Primary. B) Transponder. C) Secondary. D) Memory. E) Responder.

D

Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only when: A) the body cells are healthy. B) a helper T cell has engulfed an antigen. C) a cancerous cell gets attacked by NK cells. D) an antigen-presenting cell has engulfed and is processing an antigen. E) a virus-infected cell secretes interferons.

D

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes AIDS selectively infects _____ cells. A) plasma. B) helper T. C) suppressor T. D) cytotoxic T. E) B.

B

The term immunological _____ refers to the ability to demonstrate an immune response upon exposure to an antigen. A) determination. B) potency. C) readiness. D) drive. E) competence.

E

The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the _____ portion of the airway. A) respiratory. B) exchange. C) sinus. D) conducting. E) primary.

D

The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the: A) interlobular septa. B) spaces between the parietal and visceral pleura. C) blood-air barrier of the alveoli. D) bronchioles. E) terminal bronchioles.

C

The physical movement of air into and out of the lungs is termed: A) external respiration. B) pulmonary ventilation. C) gas diffusion. D) internal respiration. E) cellular respiration.

B

Boyle’s law states that the pressure of a gas is: A) directly proportional to temperature. B) directly proportional to the volume of its container. C) always higher in the atmosphere than in the lungs. D) inversely proportional to the volume of its container. E) inversely proportional to temperature.

D

_____ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle. A) Tidal volume. B) Expiratory reserve volume. C) Inspiratory capacity. D) Inspiratory reserve volume. E) Residual volume.

A

The _____ of the lungs is an indication of their expandability, how easily the lungs expand and contract. A) intrapulmonary pressure. B) volume. C) compliance. D) cellular respiration. E) ventilation.

C

Air that remains in conducting passages and doesn’t participate in gas exchange is termed: A) residual volume. B) minimal volume. C) anatomic dead space. D) vital capacity. E) functional residual capacity.

C

The chloride shift occurs in order to: A) transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma. B) produce carbonic acid. C) pump hydrochloric acid out of gastric cells. D) force oxygen out of the blood and into tissues. E) produce salt for the cytosol of blood cells.

A

Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? A) decreased amounts of BPG. B) increased tissue PO2. C) decreased pH. D) decreased temperature. E) decreased temperature and decreased amounts of BPG.

C

The term hypercapnia refers to: A) labored breathing. B) an increase in pH. C) elevated PO2. D) the cessation of breathing. E) elevated PCO2.

E

The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the _____ center(s). A) expiratory. B) ventral respiratory. C) apneustic. D) DRG and VRG. E) pneumotaxic.

D

The obstructive lung disease in which connective tissues are lost, alveolar surfaces are damaged, and the respiratory surface is reduced is called: A) bronchitis. B) asthma. C) emphysema. D) tuberculosis. E) pneumonia.

C

Which of these factors does NOT affect hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen? A) blood pH. B) temperature. C) RBC metabolic activity. D) electrolyte balance. E) the PO2 of blood.

D

Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is: A) bound to hemoglobin. B) dissolved in plasma. C) carried by white blood cells. D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide. E) in ionic form as solute in the plasma.

A

Which is NOT a reason gas exchange is efficient at the blood-air barrier? A) Partial pressure differences are substantial. B) Surface area is large. C) Distance is short. D) Gap junctions facilitate fast movement. E) Gases are lipid soluble.

D

Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues is a condition called: A) emphysema. B) hypoxia. C) lung cancer. D) asthma. E) ischemia.

B

Surfactant is produced by what cell type in the alveolus? A) pneumocytes (squamous) Type I. B) smooth muscle cells. C) pneumocytes (great) Type II. D) alveolar macrophages. E) pneumocytes Type I and Type II.

C

Sally has a tumor. In an effort to fight the cancerous cells, her body increases the production of: A) memory B cells. B) plasma cells. C) NK cells. D) suppressor T cells. E) neutrophils.

C

The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response. What is the correct sequence? 1) Several cycles of mitosis occur (clonal selection). 2) Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage. 3) Cytotoxic T cells migrate to the focus of infection. 4) T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen. 5) T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells. 6) Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin. A) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6. B) 4, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2. C) 3, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2. D) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6. E) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6.

D

Which class of immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to a newborn? A) IgD. B) IgE. C) IgM. D) IgA. E) IgG.

D

If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally, which would occur? A) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly. B) a person would stop breathing. C) respiratory minute volume would increase. D) tidal volumes would decrease. E) alveolar ventilation would increase.

B