Complete 737 Systems Study Guide (APR 26)

On the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD), airspeed and altitude are computed from the pneumatic pressure data provided by direct connections to the: a) auxiliary pitot and alternate static ports b) Captain's pitot and static ports c) First Officer's pitot and static ports

a) auxiliary pitot and alternate static ports

On the PFD Airspeed Indicator, the bottom of the Maximum Speed (red and black) bar indicates the maximum speed as limited by: a) Landing Gear or Flap Placard speed b) VMO/MMO c) All answers are correct

c) All answers are correct

On the PFD, the rising runway is displayed when the localizer signal is usable, and: a) the radio altitude is less than 100 feet b) the autopilot or flight director is engaged c) the radio altitude is less than 2500 feet

c) the radio altitude is less than 2500 feet

On the PFD Attitude Indicator during a TCAS RA, the areas inside the red lines indicate the pitch region(s) to ______ in order to resolve the traffic conflict. a) fly b) report c) avoid

c) avoid

How is the weather radar transmitter energized and able to display weather radar returns? a) automatically after takeoff b) by pressing the WXR (weather radar) on the EFIS control panel c) by deselecting the TEST button on the weather radar panel

b) by pressing the WXR (weather radar) on the EFIS control panel

On the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD), heading information is provided from: a) the alternate heading gyro b) the same source as the First Officer's primary flight display c) the #1 ADIRU

c) the #1 ADIRU

If a _____ fails, automatic display switching ensures critical information remains available to pilots at all times. a) MCP b) IRS c) DU

c) DU

On the PFD Airspeed Indicator, the V2+15 (white) bug is displayed for takeoff, and removed at: a) first flap retraction b) final flap retraction c) landing gear retraction

a) first flap retraction

The approach mode selector on the Standby Attitude Indicator provides ILS signals provided by the ______ lLS receiver. a) No. 1 or No. 2 b) No. 1 c) No. 2

b) No. 1

On PFD Landing Altitude/Minimums Indications, the Minimums Reference/Altitude (green) _________ and flashes for 3 seconds when the aircraft descends below selected minimum altitude. a) changes to a diamond b) turns red c) turns amber

c) turns amber

On PFD Landing Altitude/Minimums Indications, the Landing Altitude Reference Bar indicates amber when height above touchdown is: a) 0 to 250 feet above landing altitude b) 0 to 500 feet above landing altitude c) 1000 AGL

b) 0 to 500 feet above landing altitude

On the EFIS control Panel, pushing the ______ button would allow for Vertical Situation Display in MAP mode as installed. a) CTR b) STD c) TFC

a) CTR

Moving the flight recorder test switch from NORMAL (guarded position) to TEST: a) powers the flight recorder on the ground b) does not work without the engines being powered c) bypasses the electrical power switches and the air ground switch to power the flight recorder on the ground

a) powers the flight recorder on the ground

On the PFD Airspeed Indicator, the VREF+20 (white) bug is automatically displayed with selection of: a) VREF b) wind correction c) autobrakes

a) VREF

On the PFD Attitude Indicator, the Bank Pointer indicates bank angle. When the bank angle is _____ degrees or greater the Bank Pointer fills and turns amber. a) 30 b) 35 c) 45

b) 35

On the PFD Airspeed Indicator, the top of the Minimum Speed (red and black) bar is the speed at which: a) stick pusher occurs b) stick shaker occurs c) the aural warning "airspeed low, airspeed low" sounds

b) stick shaker occurs

The _____ provide inertial position and track data to the FMC as well as attitude, altitude, and airspeed data to the displays. a) MCPs b) ADIRUs c) IRSs

b) ADIRUs

The instrument DISPLAYS select switches are located on the overhead panel. Placing the Control Panel Select Switch to BOTH ON 1, provides a means of manually switching the Captain's and First Officers displays: a) to a single DEU b) to a single FMC c) to a single EFIS Control Panel

c) to a single EFIS Control Panel

The Maximum Maneuver Speed/High Speed Buffet (amber) bar is displayed on the PFD Airspeed Indicator: a) when landing gear is down b) when flaps are up c) when flaps are up and landing gear is down

b) when flaps are up

On the EFIS control Panel, pushing the ______ button would allow for the display of IRS positions, GPS positions, and VOR bearing vectors extended from the nose of the aircraft symbol to the stations. a) STA b) POS c) DATA

b) POS

The stabilizer trim main electric cutout switch and the stabilizer trim autopilot cutout switch are provided to allow the autopilot or main electrical trim inputs to be: a) disconnected from the single stabilizer trim motor b) disconnected from their respective stabilizer trim motor c) to override to opposing stabilizer trim motor

a) disconnected from the single stabilizer trim motor

At Flaps 1, the Auto Slat system _______ as the aircraft approaches the stall condition. a) automatically drives the slats to EXTEND b) automatically drives the slats to FULL EXTEND c) automatically retracts the slats from EXTEND to UP

b) automatically drives the slats to FULL EXTEND

Illumination of the FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicates: a) an emergency situation exists due to a complete electrical failure b) the elevator trim system is inoperative c) excessive differential hydraulic pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer

c) excessive differential hydraulic pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer

An illuminated amber Automatic Slat Failure (AUTO SLAT FAIL) Light during MASTER CAUTION recall indicates: a) a failure of both Stall Management / Yaw Damper computers b) a failure of a single Stall Management / Yaw Damper computer c) a failure of the autopilot

b) a failure of a single Stall Management / Yaw Damper computer

Operation of the Rudder Trim Control switch electrically repositions the _____, which results in a shift in the rudder neutral position. a) rudder pedals b) rudder trim tabs c) rudder feel and centering unit

c) rudder feel and centering unit

On the 737-800, the yaw damper uses: a) hydraulic system A or B b) hydraulic system B or standby hydraulic system pressure during manual reversion (both FLT CONTROL switches placed to STBY RUD) c) hydraulic system A or standby hydraulic system pressure (system B FLT CONTROL switch in OFF).

b) hydraulic system B or standby hydraulic system pressure during manual reversion (both FLT CONTROL switches placed to STBY RUD)

The flight spoilers rise on the wing with the up aileron and remain faired on the wing with the down aileron. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately ________, spoiler deflection is initiated. a) 5 degrees b) 10 degrees c) 15 degrees

b) 10 degrees

Above approximately 135 knots, both hydraulic system A and B pressure are each reduced. This function limits full rudder authority: a) only before landing b) in flight after takeoff and before landing c) on the ground

b) in flight after takeoff and before landing

In the event of total hydraulic power failure, rotation of the pilots' control wheels ________ positions the ailerons. a) electrically b) mechanically c) pneumatically

b) mechanically

________ Aileron Trim Switch(es) repositions the aileron neutral control position. a) Movement of either b) Movement of the required (left or right) c) Movement of both

c) Movement of both

Where is the aileron trim indicator located? a) on the center pedal stool b) on the aft overhead panel c) on top of the control wheel

c) on top of the control wheel

Engagement and disengagement of the Mach Trim System is accomplished: a) automatically as a function of airspeed b) automatically as a function of pressure altitude c) manually by use of the Mach Trim Cutout Switch

a) automatically as a function of airspeed

If the autopilot is engaged, actuating either pair of stabilizer trim switches: a) automatically disengages the autopilot b) overrides the autopilot c) renders the elevator trim system inoperative

a) automatically disengages the autopilot

If manual trim is used to position the stabilizer beyond the electrical trim limits, _______________ may be used to return the stabilizer to electrical trim units. a) only manual trim b) only Mach Trim c) the stabilizer trim switches

c) the stabilizer trim switches

Placing the STAB TRIM override switch to OVERRIDE: a) deactivates the autopilot STAB TRIM system b) deactivates the main STAB TRIM system c) bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches

c) bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches

The speed trim system (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight characteristics during operations with a low gross weight, aft center of gravity, and high thrust when the autopilot _______ engaged. a) is b) is not

b) is not

While inflight the SPEED TRIM FAIL light illuminates. What has occurred? a) a single channel failure of the speed trim system b) a dual channel failure of the speed trim system and if applicable, MCAS (MAX) c) the speed trim is operating

b) a dual channel failure of the speed trim system and if applicable, MCAS (MAX)

Which hydraulic system powers the rudder? a) Only the A hydraulic system b) Only the B hydraulic system c) Either hydraulic system

c) Either hydraulic system

In flight, yaw damper operation results in ____________ rudder pedal movement. a) No rudder pedal movement b) A maximum of 5 degrees of rudder pedal movement. c) A maximum of 10 degrees of rudder pedal movement.

a) No rudder pedal movement

The rudder pedals permit limited nose gear steering up to ______ degrees each side of center. a) 7 b) 10 c) 78

a) 7

The Rudder Trim OFF Flag indicates the rudder trim: a) is inoperative b) is operative c) indicator is inoperative

c) indicator is inoperative

Rotating the rudder trim control knob: a) hydraulically trims the rudder b) electrically trims the rudder c) pneumatically trims the rudder

b) electrically trims the rudder

When the SPEED BRAKE lever is actuated all the spoilers: a) extend in the air b) extend on the ground and in the air c) extend on the ground and only the flight spoilers extend when the aircraft is in the air

c) extend on the ground and only the flight spoilers extend when the aircraft is in the air

Using the flight spoilers during a turn will: a) greatly increase the roll rate b) greatly decrease the roll rate c) decrease rate of descent

a) greatly increase the roll rate

All flight and ground spoilers will automatically rise to full extend on landing if the speed brake lever is in the ARMED position and: a) both thrust levers are at IDLE b) either thrust lever is at IDLE

a) both thrust levers are at IDLE

The _______ position indicates all flight spoilers are extended to their maximum position for inflight use, while the ________ indicates all flight and ground spoilers are extended to their maximum position for ground use. a) UP; UP b) UP; FLIGHT DETENT c) FLIGHT DETENT; UP

c) FLIGHT DETENT; UP

An illuminated SPEED BRAKE ARMED light indicates: a) valid automatic speed brake system inputs b) the speed brakes need to be armed c) the speed brakes will remain stowed on landing

a) valid automatic speed brake system inputs

The Flaps/Slats Electronic Unit (FSEU) monitors trailing edge flaps for _______________. If the FSEU detects a trailing edge problem, it _______ the trailing edge flap bypass valve. a) skew protection but no asymmetry protection; closes b) asymmetry and skew conditions; closes c) asymmetry protection but no skew protection; opens

b) asymmetry and skew conditions; closes

Why are there mechanical Flap Gates positioned at 1 and 15? a) for single engine and normal go-around b) for takeoff flap settings c) for standardization among fleets

a) for single engine and normal go-around

Where would a TE flaps asymmetry or skew indication be seen? a) The Flap Position Indicator b) The Aft Overhead Panel c) all answers are correct

a) The Flap Position Indicator

Leading edge devices _______ be retracted by the standby hydraulic system. a) can b) cannot

b) cannot

On the Leading Edge Devices (LE DEVICES) Annunciator Panel, located on the aft overhead panel, an extinguished LE light indicates: a) the related LE device is retracted b) the related LE device is extended c) the related LE device has been manually extended

a) the related LE device is retracted

On the Leading Edge Devices (LE DEVICES) Annunciator Panel, located on the aft overhead panel, pressing the Leading Edge Annunciator Panel TEST switch: a) tests the FSEU b) tests all trailing edge flap positions c) tests all annunciator panel lights

c) tests all annunciator panel lights

An illuminated green Leading Edge Devices Extended (LE FLAPS EXT) Light indicates: a) all leading edge devices are retracted b) all leading flaps are extended c) all trailing edge devices are retracted

b) all leading flaps are extended

An illuminated amber YAW DAMPER Light indicates: a) the yaw damper is being operated by the standby hydraulic system b) the yaw damper is not engaged c) the yaw damper switch needs to be positioned to OFF

b) the yaw damper is not engaged

An illuminated amber Speed Trim Failure (SPEED TRIM FAIL) Light indicates: a) a failure of the speed trim system b) a failure of the mach trim system c) a failure of the autopilot

a) a failure of the speed trim system

If the BUS TRANS switch is in the AUTO position and the source powering the transfer bus is disconnected or fails, the source powering the opposite transfer bus __________ through the BTBs. a) automatically picks up the unpowered transfer bus b) can be selected to power the unpowered transfer bus c) cannot power the unpowered transfer bus - a) automatically picks up the unpowered transfer bus

What occurs when a source of power is connected to a bus system? a) The sources are paralleled and then accepted b) It automatically disconnects an existing source c) It automatically accepts the most powerful source - b) It automatically disconnects an existing source

A GRD POWER AVAILABLE light provides flight deck indication that AC ground power is: a) powering the main bus b) connected to the aircraft and may or may not meet aircraft power quality standards c) connected to the aircraft and meets aircraft power quality standards - c) connected to the aircraft and meets aircraft power quality standards

The three transformer rectifier (TR) units convert 115-volt AC to ______ DC. a) 12-volt b) 23-volt c) 28-volt - c) 28-volt

On the B737-900ER, which switch can be used to remove power from the left and right recirculation fans, forward and aft door area heaters, lavatory water heaters, ECS fan, all 115V AC galley busses, 115V AC shaver outlets, logo light, and potable compressor? a) BUS TRAN switch b) CAB/UTIL switch c) IFE/PASS SEAT switch - b) CAB/UTIL switch

What light on the overhead panel illuminates if the transfer bus is not powered by a manually selected source, or if the manually selected source has been disconnected? a) ELEC b) SOURCE OFF c) DRIVE - b) SOURCE OFF

In flight, an amber TR UNIT light illuminates when: a) All TRs have failed b) TR1 or TR2 or TR3 has failed c) TR1 or TR2 and TR3 have failed - c) TR1 or TR2 and TR3 have failed

With ground power available, moving the Ground (GRD) Power Switch to the ON position: a) Removed previously connected power from AC transfer busses b) Connects ground power to AC transfer busses if power quality is correct c) All answers are correct - c) All answers are correct

The amber DRIVE caution light is illuminated when ___ oil pressure is sensed in the IDG. a) low b) high c) all answers are correct - a) low

An amber BAT DISCHARGE light illuminates when: a) a thermal runaway is occurring b) excessive battery discharge is detected c) the battery has failed - b) excessive battery discharge is detected

Primary electrical power is provided by ______ engine driven integrated drive generators (IDGs). a) two b) three c) four - a) two

The APU generator can supply power to ____________ on the ground and inflight. a) one transfer bus b) two transfer buses to 10,000 feet, above 10,000 feet only one transfer bus can be powered c) both transfer busses - c) both transfer busses

For single generator operation, the system is designed to: a) shed electrically both generator buses b) shed electrical load incrementally c) all answers are correct - b) shed electrical load incrementally

On the ground, an amber _______ light illuminates to indicate the DC system or standby system equipment has failed. This light is inhibited in flight. a) ELEC b) TR UNIT c) BAT DISCHARGE - a) ELEC

A fully charged battery has sufficient capacity to provide electrical power for a minimum of ________ of standby power. (Single-Battery configuration) a) 30 minutes b) 45 minutes c) 60 minutes - a) 30 minutes

During normal operation the guarded Standby Power Switch will be in _____ and the battery switch will be _____. a) AUTO; ON b) BAT; ON c) AUTO; either OFF or ON - a) AUTO; ON

What is the function of the DC Meters Selector? a) selects the Standby Battery static inverter AC Ammeter indications b) selects the AC source for the DC Voltmeter and the AC Ammeter indications c) selects the DC source for the DC Voltmeter and the DC Ammeter indications - c) selects the DC source for the DC Voltmeter and the DC Ammeter indications

What is the function of the AC Meters Selector? a) selects the DC source for the AC Voltmeter and the DC Ammeter indications b) selects the AC source for the AC Voltmeter, AC Ammeter and frequency meter indications c) selects the Standby Battery static inverter AC Ammeter indications - b) selects the AC source for the AC Voltmeter, AC Ammeter and frequency meter indications

What light on the overhead panel illuminates if the transfer bus is not being powered? a) DRIVE b) ELEC c) TRANSFER BUS OFF - c) TRANSFER BUS OFF

What light on the overhead panel illuminates if the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus? a) DRIVE b) ELEC c) GEN OFF BUS - c) GEN OFF BUS

On the B737-800, moving the Generator (GEN) Switch to ON, connects ___________ by disconnecting the previous power source and closing the generator circuit breaker. a) IDG to the AC Transfer Bus b) IDG to the DC Main Bus c) all answers are correct - a) IDG to the AC Transfer Bus

Which switch provides manual control of ground service busses enabling servicing of the aircraft using external power without activating AC transfer busses? a) CAB/UTL Switch on the Overhead Panel b) IFE/PASS SEAT Switch on the Overhead Panel c) GROUND SERVICE Switch on the FWD Attendant Panel - c) GROUND SERVICE Switch on the FWD Attendant Panel

On the B737-800, where is engine vibration displayed? a) FMC Progress Page 4 b) FMC Performance Page c) Secondary Engine Display on the Lower Display Unit

c) Secondary Engine Display on the Lower Display Unit

In times other than engine starting, when electrical load and bleed air extraction combine to raise the EGT on the APU above acceptable levels: a) the APU will shed the main bus b) bleed air extraction is reduced while maintaining electrical load c) the APU will initiate an auto shutdown

b) bleed air extraction is reduced while maintaining electrical load

On the B737-800, in flight, if the APU is the only source for electrical power: a) AC transfer 2 is automatically shed b) all galley busses are automatically shed c) no bleed air can be used

b) all galley busses are automatically shed

What occurs when the EEC detects an engine flameout? a) additional fuel is introduced b) both engine igniters are activated c) all answers are correct

b) both engine igniters are activated

On the NG, what does an illuminated amber ENGINE CONTROL light on the aft overhead panel indicate? a) The engine control system is not dispatchable due to faults in the system b) The EEC is in the alternate mode c) The auto-restow circuit has been activated

a) The engine control system is not dispatchable due to faults in the system

On the NG, what is the maximum allowable EGT for Engine Start? a) 725°C b) 795°C c) 750°C

a) 725°C

What condition(s) would cause an amber Engine Fail (ENG FAIL) Alert? a) Engine N2 below sustainable idle (50% N2) and engine start lever in IDLE position b) Engine N2 below sustainable idle (50% N2) c) Engine start lever in IDLE position

a) Engine N2 below sustainable idle (50% N2) and engine start lever in IDLE position

What does X-BLD START above the N2 dial indicate? a) Crossbleed air recommended for inflight start b) Windmill start recommended c) Crossbleed air not recommended for start

a) Crossbleed air recommended for inflight start

What happens if the APU does not reach the proper speed with the proper acceleration rate within the time limit of the starter? a) The APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates b) The APU will introduce more fuel c) The start cycle automatically terminates

c) The start cycle automatically terminates

On the engine panel on the aft overhead panel, both ON and ALTN may be in view if the EEC has: a) failed b) automatically changed to the soft alternate mode c) manually entered the hard alternate mode

b) automatically changed to the soft alternate mode

What is minimum engine oil pressure for the B737-800? a) 5 psi b) 10 psi c) 13 psi

c) 13 psi

What does an Amber Arc on an Engine Limit Display indicate? a) Cautionary range b) Normal operating range c) Maximum and minimum limits

a) Cautionary range

When the EEC is in soft alternate mode, thrust rating shortfalls and exceedances _______ occur as flight conditions change. a) may b) cannot c) would not

a) may

The engines may be started with air: a) from the APU or ground source b) by using engine crossbleed c) all answers are correct

c) all answers are correct

IGN L is powered by AC transfer bus #1 for engine #1 and AC transfer bus #2 for engine #2. IGN R is powered by _________ for either engine. a) AC transfer bus #1 b) AC transfer bus #2 c) AC standby bus

c) AC standby bus

An amber REV displayed above the N1 gauges on the center instrument panel indicates: a) the thrust reverser is moved from stowed position b) the thrust reverser is deployed c) thrust reverse is required

a) the thrust reverser is moved from stowed position

A green REV displayed above the N1 gauges on the center instrument panel indicated: a) thrust reverse is required b) the thrust reverser is moved from stowed position c) the thrust reverser is deployed

c) the thrust reverser is deployed

Each Engine is equipped with a __________ operated thrust reverser. a) hydraulically b) pneumatically c) electrically

a) hydraulically

How can N1 reference bugs and readouts be manually set? a) By turning the N1 SET inner knob when the N1 SET outer knob is set to BOTH, 1, or 2 b) By turning the SPD REF knob c) They cannot be manually set

a) By turning the N1 SET inner knob when the N1 SET outer knob is set to BOTH, 1, or 2

What does a red N2 RPM display indicate? a) An operating limit is being exceeded b) The normal operating range c) A normal engine shutdown had occurred

a) An operating limit is being exceeded

What occurs when the FUEL FLOW Switch is placed in the RESET position? a) The fuel in the tanks is recalculated b) The fuel used is reset to zero c) The fuel referenced in the FMC is recalculated

b) The fuel used is reset to zero

What does a steady illuminated amber START VALVE OPEN Alert light indicate? a) The start valve will not open b) There is an uncommanded opening of start valve c) The respective engine start valve is open and air is supplied to the starter

c) The respective engine start valve is open and air is supplied to the starter