MOCK CONCEPTUALS

MATH Mock 1

1. What is the purpose of confidence intervals in engineering data analysis?

A. To estimate population parameters with a certain level of confidence.

B. To determine the strength of a correlation.

C. To identify outliers in a dataset.

D. To test the significance of a regression coefficient.

A. To estimate population parameters with a certain level of confidence.

2. If an event can occur in ?m? different ways, following which another event can occur in ?n? different ways, then the total numbers of occurrence of the events in the given order is __________________.

A. m-n

B. m+n

C. m/n

D. m*n

D. m*n

3. Which of the following is an example of negative work?

A. Lifting a heavy box off the ground

B. Lowering a weight down from a height

C. Walking up a flight of stairs

D. Sliding a book across a table

B. Lowering a weight down from a height

4. A control chart is used to:

A. Monitor a process over time for statistical control.

B. Determine the best-fit line in regression analysis.

C. Calculate the probability of an event occurring.

D. Estimate population parameters from a sample.

A. Monitor a process over time for statistical control.

5. Which of the following statements best describes projectile motion?

A. Motion of an object in a straight line with constant speed.

B. Motion of an object launched into the air with an initial velocity and subject to gravity.

C. Motion of an object under the influence of gravity only.

D. Motion of an object moving in a circular path.

B. Motion of an object launched into the air with an initial velocity and subject to gravity.

6. What does a p-value represent in hypothesis testing?

A. The probability of making a Type II error.

B. The probability of making a Type I error.

C. The strength of the relationship between variables.

D. The level of significance for the test.

B. The probability of making a Type I error.

7. What is the purpose of confidence intervals in engineering data analysis?

A. To estimate population parameters with a certain level of confidence.

B. To determine the strength of a correlation.

C. To identify outliers in a dataset.

D. To test the significance of a regression coefficient.

A. To estimate population parameters with a certain level of confidence.

MATH MOCK 2

1. In engineering data analysis, the term "outlier" refers to:

A. Data points that are exactly equal to the mean.

B. Data points that are extremely low in value.

C. Data points that are significantly different from the majority of the data.

D. Data points that are missing from the dataset.

C. Data points that are significantly different from the majority of the data.

2. A shape with 4 equal sides and one 90 deg angle is a?

A. Square

B. Trapezoid

C. Parallelogram

D. Rhombus

A. Square

3. The method of least squares is used to:

A. Conduct analysis of variance (ANOVA) tests.

B. Minimize the sum of squared residuals in regression analysis.

C. Calculate the confidence interval for a population mean.

D. Determine the sample size needed for a hypothesis test.

B. Minimize the sum of squared residuals in regression analysis.

4. Impulse can be calculated by integrating the:

A. Acceleration with respect to time

B. Force with respect to displacement

C. Velocity with respect to time

D. Force with respect to time

D. Force with respect to time

5. The differential equation dy/dx = y^2 is a:

A. Nonlinear differential equation

B. First-order differential equation

C. Linear differential equation

D. Second-order differential equation

B. First-order differential equation

6. If an object undergoes uniformly accelerated motion, what can be said about its acceleration?

A. It varies randomly

B. It is constant

C. It is decreasing

D. It is increasing

B. It is constant

7. If slope of a line is negative then its inclination is ___________

A. right angle

B. acute angle

C. reflex angle

D. obtuse angle

D. obtuse angle

8. What is the value of tan 90 deg

A. Undefined

B. 111

C. 0

D. None Of The Above

A. Undefined

9. If the work done on an object is zero, then:

A. The object is not moving

B. The net force on the object is zero

C. The object is at rest

D. The object is moving at a constant velocity

D. The object is moving at a constant velocity

10. Event _____________ contains elements which are either in A or in B or in both.

A. B but not A

B. A and B

C. A but not B

D. A or B

D. A or B

AERODYNAMICS MOCK 1

1. The use of a slot at the leading edge of a wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because:

A. it changes the camber of the wing

B. it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer

C. the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker

D. it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack

D. it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack

2. Stability of an aircraft is.

A. The Ability Of The Aircraft To Rotate About An Axis.

B. All Of The Above

C. The Tendency Of The Aircraft To Return To Its Original Trimmed Position After Having Been Displaced.

D. The Tendency Of The Aircraft To Stall At Low Airspeed.

C. The Tendency Of The Aircraft To Return To Its Original Trimmed Position After Having Been Displaced.

3. An aeroplane is in a sideslip at a constant speed and angle that increases the geometric dihedral of the wing. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. the required lateral control force does not change

B. the stick force per g decreases

C. the required lateral control force increases

D. the required lateral control force decreases

C. the required lateral control force increases

4. What is the term used for the amount of water in the atmosphere?

A. Relative Humidity.

B. Absolute Humidity.

C. Dew Point.

D. All Of The Above

B. Absolute Humidity.

5. Weight is equal to.

A. None Of The Above

B. Mass * Gravity.

C. Volume * Gravity.

D. Mass * Acceleration.

B. Mass * Gravity.

6. The speed of the local airflow after passing through an oblique shockwave is:

A. initially more than the speed of sound then decreasing to less than the speed of sound

B. more than the speed of sound

C. equal to the speed of sound

D. less than the speed of sound

B. more than the speed of sound

7. deployed slat will:

A. decrease the boundary-layer energy and decrease the maximum negative pressure on the slat, so that Clmax is attained at a lower angle of attack

B. increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that Clmax is attained at a higher angle of attack

C. increase the boundary-layer energy and move the maximum negative pressure from the wing to the slat, so that Clmax is attained at a higher angle of attack

D. increase the boundary-layer energy and increase the maximum negative pressure on the wing, so that Clmax is attained at a higher angle of attack

C. increase the boundary-layer energy and move the maximum negative pressure from the wing to the slat, so that Clmax is attained at a higher angle of attack

8. A tube facing into an airflow will experience a pressure in the tube equal to:

A. Static pressure

B. Static pressure plus dynamic pressure

C. The difference between total pressure and static pressure

D. Dynamic pressure

B. Static pressure plus dynamic pressure

9. The lift on a wing is increased with.

A. An Increase In Pressure.

B. An Increase In Humidity.

C. An Increase In Temperature.

D. None Of The Above

?. Answer not marked in source

10. The effect an increase of mass has on the value of Vx and Vy is:

A. Vx increases and Vy decreases

B. Vx decreases and Vy decreases

C. Vx decreases and Vy increases

D. Vx increases and Vy increases

D. Vx increases and Vy increases

11. In a steady climb at a steady IAS, the TAS is

A. The Same

B. More Than Ias

C. Less Than Ias.

D. All Of The Above

B. More Than Ias

12. Helicopter rotor blades produce lift by.

A. Moving A Large Mass Of Air Downwards Quickly.

B. Moving A Small Mass Of Air Downwards Slowly.

C. Creating A Lower Pressure Above The Blade Than Below.

D. All Of The Above

?. Answer not marked in source

13. Calibration of the Air Speed Indicator is based upon the density:

A. At the altitude at which the aircraft is flying

B. At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere temperature

C. At sea level

D. At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere +15?C temperature

B. At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere temperature

14. Considering Newton?s first law of motion: (1)? - a body is said to have energy if it has the ability to do work (2)? - the amount of energy a body possesses is measured by the amount of work it can do (3)? - a body will tend to remain at rest, or in uniform motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external force (4)? - to move a stationary object or to make a moving object change its direction, a force must be applied The combination with the correct statements is:

A. 3 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 2

?. Answer not marked in source

15. Wing-tip vortices are caused by:

A. air spilling from the upper surface to the lower surface at the wing tip

B. the spanwise flow vector from the wing tip to the root on the lower surface

C. air spilling from the lower surface to the upper surface at the wing tip

D. air spilling from the lower surface to the upper surface on the port and vice versa on the starboard

C. air spilling from the lower surface to the upper surface at the wing tip

16. The region of speed instability is:

A. the same as the region of reversed command

B. at speeds below the low buffet speed

C. the region in which manual control is not possible

D. the region above the thrust available and drag curve intersection

A. the same as the region of reversed command

17. In normal cruise flight, which of the following devices will be active for an aeroplane fitted with (i) inboard ailerons, (ii) outboard ailerons and (iii) roll-control spoilers.

A. (i) inactive (ii) active (iii) may be active

B. (i) active (ii) active (iii) may be active

C. (i) inactive (ii) inactive (iii) active

D. (i) active (ii) inactive (iii) may be active

D. (i) active (ii) inactive (iii) may be active

18. In the case of a supersonic flow being retarded by a normal shockwave, the loss of total pressure can be minimized if the Mach number in front of the shockwave is:

A. equal to 1

B. small but still supersonic

C. supersonic

D. less than 1

B. small but still supersonic

19. A wing with washout would have:

A. the tip chord less than the root chord.

B. the tip incidence less than the root incidence.

C. the tip incidence greater than the root incidence.

D. the tip camber less than the root camber.

B. the tip incidence less than the root incidence.

20. Newton?s third law of motion states:

A. Every force has an equal and opposite inertia

B. The energy possessed by a mass is inversely proportional to its velocity

C. For every force there is an action

D. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

D. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

21. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?

A. Slot.

B. All Of The Above

C. Fowler.

D. Split.

C. Fowler.

22. If the stalling speed in straight and level flight is 100 kt the Vs in a 45? banked turn will be:

A. 100 kt

B. 119 kt

C. 80 kt

D. 140 kt

?. Answer not marked in source

23. A centre of gravity position close to its aft limit will cause the aircraft to

A. Pitch Nose Up And Decrease Its Longitudinal Stability.

B. Pitch Nose Down And Increase Its Longitudinal Stability.

C. All Of The Above

D. Pitch Nose Up And Increase Its Longitudinal Stability.

A. Pitch Nose Up And Decrease Its Longitudinal Stability.

24. Static stability of a helicopter is

A. The Tendency Move Back Toward Neutral After Disturbance.

B. The Stability Of The Helicopter When Hovering.

C. The Tendency To Oscillate Until The Neutral Is Achieved.

D. None Of The Above

A. The Tendency Move Back Toward Neutral After Disturbance.

25. A shock stall occurs at

A. All Of The Above

B. Equally Both Large And Small Angles Of Attack.

C. Small Angles Of Attack.

D. Large Angles Of Attack.

C. Small Angles Of Attack.

26. At high altitude an aeroplane flies at a Mach number that ensures a 0.3g buffet margin. So that the buffet margin is increased to 0.4g at the same speed the pilot must:

A. increase the angle of attack

B. decrease the altitude

C. increase the altitude

D. extend the flaps to the take-off setting

B. decrease the altitude

27. Lateral stability is given by.

A. The Ailerons.

B. The Wing Dihedral.

C. All Of The Above

D. The Horizontal Tailplane.

B. The Wing Dihedral.

28. To increase Mcrit a conventional aerofoil should:

A. have a low thickness chord ratio

B. have a large camber

C. have a large leading-edge radius

D. be used with a high angle of attack

A. have a low thickness chord ratio

29. When the rotor blade is flapping up, the angle of attack.

A. Is Greater Than The Pitch Angle.

B. Remains The Same As The Pitch Angle.

C. None Of The Above

D. Is Less Than The Pitch Angle.

D. Is Less Than The Pitch Angle.

30. A wing section suitable for high speed would be

A. Thin With Little Or No Camber.

B. Thin With High Camber.

C. All Of The Above

D. Thick With High Camber.

A. Thin With Little Or No Camber.

31. During entry and roll out of a turn adverse yaw is compensated by:

A. differential aileron deflection

B. antibalanced controls

C. servo-tabs

D. horn-balanced controls

A. differential aileron deflection

32. In a constant TAS climb the Mach number will:

A. decrease

B. remain constant

C. increase

D. decrease to FL100 and then increase

C. increase

33. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?

A. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.

B. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.

C. None of the above

D. An increase in dynamic stability.

A. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.

34. The forward movement of the CP on a swept-wing aeroplane is caused by:

A. tip stalling of the wing

B. a change in the angle of incidence of the wing

C. boundary-layer fences and spanwise flow

D. flow separation at the wing root due to spanwise flow

A. tip stalling of the wing

35. What is Boundary Layer?

A. Sluggish Low Energy Air That Sticks To The Wing Surface And Gradually Gets Faster Until It Joins The Free Stream Flow Of Air.

B. Turbulent Air Moving From The Leading Edge To Trailing Edge.

C. All Of The Above

D. Separated Layer Of Air Forming A Boundary At The Leading Edge.

A. Sluggish Low Energy Air That Sticks To The Wing Surface And Gradually Gets Faster Until It Joins The Free Stream Flow Of Air.

36. Helicopter rotor blades create lift by.

A. Pushing The Air Down.

B. Creating Low Pressure Above The Blades.

C. None Of The Above

D. Working Like A Screw.

B. Creating Low Pressure Above The Blades.

37. In level flight as the angle of attack, , is decreased:

A. the CP will move forward and improve the longitudinal stability

B. the CP movement aft of the CG improves the longitudinal stability

C. the stability is unaffected however the stalling speed increases

D. the CG will move aft and improve the longitudinal stability

B. the CP movement aft of the CG improves the longitudinal stability

38. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is:

A. statically and dynamically stable.

B. statically unstable but dynamically stable.

C. statically and dynamically unstable.

D. statically stable but dynamically unstable.

D. statically stable but dynamically unstable.

AERODYNAMICS MOCK 2

1. The purpose of a horn balance in a control system is to:

A. prevent flutter

B. decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane

C. decrease the required stick forces

D. produce mass balancing

C. decrease the required stick forces

2. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?

A. Aspect Ratio.

B. None Of The Above

C. Fineness Ratio.

D. Countersunk Rivets Used On Skin Exterior.

D. Countersunk Rivets Used On Skin Exterior.

3. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?

A. The Rotor Goes In The Normal Direction Of Rotation.

B. The Rotor Goes The Opposite Direction To The Normal Direction Of Rotation.

C. All Of The Above

D. The Cabin Goes In The Direction Of Rotation.

A. The Rotor Goes In The Normal Direction Of Rotation.

4. Due to the change in downwash on an untapered wing (i.e. one of constant chord length) it will.

A. Not Provide Any Damping Effect When Rolling.

B. Not Suffer Adverse Yaw Effects When Turning.

C. None Of The Above

D. Tend To Stall First At The Root.

D. Tend To Stall First At The Root.

5. Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the speed of sound are.

A. Hyposonic.

B. All Of The Above

C. Hypersonic.

D. Supersonic.

D. Supersonic.

6. What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at V(MC)?

A. All of the above

B. Heading.

C. Heading and altitude.

D. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

B. Heading.

7. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by.

A. Right Spoilers Extending, Left Spoilers Remaining Retracted.

B. Left And Right Spoilers Extending.

C. Left Spoilers Extending, Right Spoilers Remaining Retracted.

D. None Of The Above

A. Right Spoilers Extending, Left Spoilers Remaining Retracted.

8. A high wing position gives.

A. More Lateral Stability Than A Low Wing.

B. Less Lateral Stability Than A Low Wing.

C. None Of The Above

D. The Same Lateral Stability As A Low Wing.

A. More Lateral Stability Than A Low Wing.

9. What type of drag, depends on the smoothness of the body, and surface area over which the air flows?

A. Parasite Drag.

B. Form Drag.

C. None Of The Above

D. Skin Friction Drag.

D. Skin Friction Drag.

10. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time:

A. Light quartering tailwind.

B. Strong, direct crosswind.

C. Direct tailwind.

D. Light quartering headwind.

A. Light quartering tailwind.

11. The speed at which ?tuck under? will occur is:

A. only above the critical Mach number

B. only at the critical Mach number

C. above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack

D. only below the critical Mach number

A. only above the critical Mach number

12. Va is the speed at which:

A. an aeroplane should fly in turbulence

B. the maximum cruise ceiling is determined

C. full elevator deflection is possible without exceeding the load limits

D. a gust factor of 56 fps is determined

C. full elevator deflection is possible without exceeding the load limits

13. The effect that the degree of positive camber has on longitudinal stability is:

A. positive. The lift vector slopes aft with increasing angle of attack.

B. no effect. The pitching moment is always negative irrespective of the angle of attack.

C. positive. The CP moves aft with increasing angle of attack.

D. negative. The lift vector slopes forward with increasing angle of attack

B. no effect. The pitching moment is always negative irrespective of the angle of attack.

14. The effect of an aft movement of the CG on (i) static longitudinal stability (ii) the required control deflection for a given pitch change is:

A. (i) decreases; (ii) increases

B. (i) increases; (ii) increases

C. (i) decreases; (ii) decreases

D. (i) increases; (ii) decreases

C. (i) decreases; (ii) decreases

15. Loading an aircraft so that the CG exceeds the aft limits could result in:

A. high stick forces

B. excessive load factor in turns

C. loss of longitudinal stability, and the nose to pitch up at slow speeds

D. excessive upward force on the tail, and the nose to pitch down

?. Answer not marked in source

16. The lift differential that exists between the advancing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade is known as

A. None of the above

B. Coriolis effect.

C. dissymmetry of lift.

D. translating tendency.

C. dissymmetry of lift.

17. A laminar boundary layer will produce.

A. The Same Skin Friction Drag As A Turbulent One.

B. Less Skin Friction Drag Than A Turbulent One.

C. More Skin Friction Drag Than A Turbulent One.

D. All Of The Above

B. Less Skin Friction Drag Than A Turbulent One.

18. QNE refers to.

A. Quite New Equipment.

B. Setting An Altimeter To Read Aerodrome Altitude Above Sea Level.

C. Setting The Mean Sea Level Atmospheric Pressure In Accordance With Icao Standard Atmosphere I.e. 1013 Millibars.

D. All Of The Above

C. Setting The Mean Sea Level Atmospheric Pressure In Accordance With Icao Standard Atmosphere I.e. 1013 Millibars.

19. The lift and drag forces of a wing cross-section:

A. vary linearly with the angle of attack

B. are proportional to each other at all angles of attack

C. are normal to each other at only one angle of attack

D. depend on the pressure distribution around the wing for their magnitude

D. depend on the pressure distribution around the wing for their magnitude

20. Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?

A. Slats.

B. None of the above

C. Elevator.

D. Dorsal fin.

C. Elevator.

21. The maximum EAS/Drag ratio is approximately:

A. 1.3Vimd

B. 1.32Vimd

C. 1.6Vimd

D. 1.8Vimd

B. 1.32Vimd

22. At a constant mass, the effect that an increase of altitude has on the value of Vx and Vy is:

A. Vx increases and Vy increases

B. Vx constant and Vy decreases

C. Vx decreases and Vy increases

D. Vx constant and Vy constant

?. Answer not marked in source

23. Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?

A. a =Fm

B. F =m/a

C. m=Fa

D. F =ma

D. F =ma

24. Asymmetrical aerofoil section at a Cl of zero will produce:

A. no aerodynamic force

B. a negative pitching moment

C. a positive pitching moment

D. zero pitching moment

B. a negative pitching moment

25. Sweepback of the wings will:

A. increases lateral stability at all speeds.

B. increases lateral stability at high speeds only.

C. not affect lateral stability.

D. decrease lateral stability.

A. increases lateral stability at all speeds.

26. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane.

A. Will Tend To Cause An Aircraft Nose-Up Pitch.

B. All Of The Above

C. May Cause A Nose-Down Or Nose-Up Pitch Depending Upon The Initial Tailplane Load

D. Will Tend To Cause An Aircraft Nose Down Pitch.

A. Will Tend To Cause An Aircraft Nose-Up Pitch.

27. Krueger flaps make up part of the.

A. Wing Upper Surface Leading Edge.

B. Wing Lower Surface Trailing Edge.

C. None Of The Above

D. Wing Lower Surface Leading Edge.

D. Wing Lower Surface Leading Edge.

28. When an aircraft stalls.

A. Lift And Drag Increase.

B. Lift Decreases And Drag Increases.

C. All Of The Above

D. Lift Increases And Drag Decreases.

B. Lift Decreases And Drag Increases.

29. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?

A. Decreases profile drag.

B. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.

C. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.

D. All of the above

C. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.

30. A wing with a very high aspect ratio (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing) will have:

A. poor control qualities at low airspeeds.

B. increased drag at high angles of attack.

C. reduced bending moment on its attachment points.

D. a low stall speed.

D. a low stall speed.

31. If the maximum cruise altitude limited by the minimum load factor is exceeded:

A. the load factor may be exceeded if a sudden turn is made

B. Mach buffet may be induced by turbulence

C. Mach buffet will be immediately experienced

D. the load factor may be exceeded if turbulence is encountered

B. Mach buffet may be induced by turbulence

32. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's

A. lift, gross weight, and drag.

B. lift, airspeed, and drag.

C. All of the above

D. lift and airspeed, but not drag.

B. lift, airspeed, and drag.

33. In flight if the aircraft nose gets an upward gust of wind, what characteristic will have the greatest effect to counteract it?.

A. Position Of The Centre Of Pressure Relative To The Centre Of Gravity.

B. All Of The Above

C. Wing Sweep.

D. Horizontal Stabiliser And Fuselage Length.

D. Horizontal Stabiliser And Fuselage Length.

34. The speed to attain the minimum power required for a turbojet aeroplane is:

A. the same as the minimum drag speed

B. less than the speed for the minimum drag

C. slower in a climb and faster in a descent

D. higher than the speed for the minimum drag

B. less than the speed for the minimum drag

AERODYNAMICS MOCK 3

1. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and:

A. A decreased stall speed.

B. Increased thrust.

C. An increased stall speed.

D. An aircraft will always stall at the same indicated airspeed.

C. An increased stall speed.

2. If all other factors remain constant the effect that increased dynamic pressure has on total drag is:

A. that it decreases

B. none

C. that it increases

D. that it is only affected by the groundspeed

C. that it increases

3. The effect of Mach trim on stick forces of power-operated controls is to:

A. decrease the stick-force gradient to a high-speed stall

B. maintain the required stick-force gradient

C. decrease the stick-force gradient to ensure manoeuvrability is maintained at high Mach numbers

D. increase the stick-force gradient to improve the ?feel.?

B. maintain the required stick-force gradient

4. With increasing altitude, up to about 40,000 ft, the characteristics of air change:(1)- Temperature decreases continuously with altitude(2)- Pressure falls steadily to an altitude of about 36,000 ft, where it then remains constant(3)- Density decreases steadily with increasing altitude(4)- Pressure falls steadily with increasing altitude. The combination of true statements is:

A. 3 and 4

B. 2 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 and 4

A. 3 and 4

5. What corrective action can a pilot take to recover from settling with power?

A. Increase forward speed and raise collective pitch.

B. Decrease forward speed and partially raise collective pitch.

C. Increase forward speed and partially lower collective pitch.

D. All of the above

C. Increase forward speed and partially lower collective pitch.

6. Profile drag consists of what drag types?

A. Form, Induced And Skin Friction.

B. Form, Induced And Interference.

C. Form, Skin Friction And Interference.

D. All Of The Above

C. Form, Skin Friction And Interference.

7. On a swept-wing aeroplane increasing the speed above Mcrit causes:

A. structural failure

B. buffeting and nose-up pitch

C. buffeting and nose-down pitch

D. increased lift necessitating high-speed tuck under

C. buffeting and nose-down pitch

8. When landing an aeroplane with excessive lateral stability in a crosswind it will require:

A. more rudder

B. less aileron into wind

C. less rudder

D. more aileron into wind

D. more aileron into wind

9. 'Tuck under' is:

A. The Vibration Of The Control Column At High Mach Numbers

B. The Tendency Of An Aeroplane To Nose-Up When The Speed Is Increased Into The Transonic Range

C. The Tendency Of An Aeroplane To Nose-Down When The Control Column Is Pulled Back

D. The Tendency Of An Aeroplane To Nose-Down When Speed Is Increased Into The Transonic Range

D. The Tendency Of An Aeroplane To Nose-Down When Speed Is Increased Into The Transonic Range

10. The effect a headwind will have on a climb to a specified altitude, compared with still air, is to:

A. decrease the ground distance travelled

B. decrease the climb time

C. increase the climb time

D. decrease the fuel used

A. decrease the ground distance travelled

11. Dynamic longitudinal stability requires:

A. a variable-incidence tailplane

B. positive static longitudinal stability

C. a small CG envelope

D. an effective elevator

B. positive static longitudinal stability