Methods & Logic - Final
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Which statement best describes the Scientific Method?
a. A way of thinking using experience to verify claims
b. A single, fixed process that works universally
c. A method focusing solely on prediction
d. A process that never evolves
e. An approach that avoids iteration
a. A way of thinking using experience to verify claims
Why do our minds tend to create patterns and stories even when they are absent in the data or observations?
a. As an adaptive behavior for survival
b. For the best entertainment
c. To make scientific studies easier
d. To emphasize the biases we have
e. To simplify complex theories
a. As an adaptive behavior for survival
Which concept is central to critical reasoning in EDA?
a. Ignoring data visualization
b. Quick statistical analysis
c. Drawing conclusions rapidly
d. Suspending judgement
e. Statistical hypothesis testing
d. Suspending judgement
What role does precedent play in probabilistic thinking?
a. It confirms the independence of traits
b. It helps predict what must be in play
c. It ensures all conclusions are correct
d. It is unnecessary for scientific reasoning
e. It is only applicable to biomedical students
b. It helps predict what must be in play
How can misinformation be avoided?
a. Sharing claims without evidence
b. Misinterpreting evidence
c. Verifying claims with credible evidence and reasoning
d. Spreading information based on weak sources
e. Ignoring logical fallacies in data interpretation
c. Verifying claims with credible evidence and reasoning
The Scientific Method generates new knowledge by generating and testing claims of such by experience. What are the cognitive steps involved?
a. Collecting facts and systematically classifying them
b. Observing and letting the dots connect themselves
c. Thinking statistically and applying power analysis
d. Breaking claim down into its parts and rebuilding it
e. Explanatory hypothesis generation and evidencing
e. Explanatory hypothesis generation and evidencing
Large drug trials have numerous variables including wide-ranging differences in the patients enrolled. What variables can be difficult or impossible to know yet can alter outcome measures?
a. Source of the drug
b. Confounding factors
c. Why patient enrolled
d. Duration of the trial
e. Patient blood pressure
b. Confounding factors
Exploratory data analysis embraces all four principles of critical reasoning. What are the principles?
a. Finding the single number summation of the data and how precisely it was determined
b. Finding the conclusion of the data and integrating it into other findings in the field
c. Displaying data beautifully pointing to the conclusion given the hypothesis tested
d. Analyzing the distribution of the data while suspending judgement on any conclusions
e. Finding error in the data that would exclude them from being normally distributed
d. Analyzing the distribution of the data while suspending judgement on any conclusions
The p-value assesses the probability that the data analyzed can be the result of random variability alone. What else is needed to assess the probability that the data results from the hypothesis being investigated?
a. Prior probability calculated from experiments or observations related to the study
b. Precision of the parameter mean of an outcome variable from confidence intervals
c. Standard error of the mean from an outcome variable of interest and a control variable
d. Number of events of an outcome of interest in sample along with the law of large numbers
e. Standard deviation from an outcome variable together with a control variable
a. Prior probability calculated from experiments or observations related to the study
How is reasoning effectively applied to transform evidence into meaningful conclusions?
a. By ignoring context and focusing on raw data
b. By ensuring logical reasoning and considering context
c. By prioritizing emotional responses over data
d. By relying exclusively on your emotional intuition
e. By applying reasoning without considering evidence
b. By ensuring logical reasoning and considering context
Why are campus surveys often flawed by bias?
a. They always use random sampling methods
b. They are conducted in low traffic areas
c. They obtain only those willing to take the survey
d. They use advanced statistical techniques
e. They use only online platforms
c. They obtain only those willing to take the survey
What is a significant limitation of observational studies?
a. They require a large sample size
b. They cannot distinguish between correlation and causation
c. They are too expensive to conduct
d. They need extensive laboratory equipment
e. They involve ethical concerns
b. They cannot distinguish between correlation and causation
Qualitative research is typically:
a. Statistical analysis
b. Data-driven
c. Subjective interpretation
d. Objective measurement
e. Generalization of results
c. Subjective interpretation
Which stage of hypothesis generation is characterized by the 'a ha' moment?
a. Illumination
b. Preparation
c. Incubation
d. Verification
e. Implementation
a. Illumination
How did abductive reasoning contribute to the discovery of Helicobacter pylori?
a. It validated the bacterial involvement through testing.
b. It derived predictions about bacterial behavior.
c. It measured the effectiveness of treatment protocols.
d. It formed the hypothesis that bacteria cause inflammatory ulcers.
e. It refined the hypothesis based on outcomes
d. It formed the hypothesis that bacteria cause inflammatory ulcers.
What is the likely source of bias in a 'convenience' sample approach to surveys?
A. Investigators always present a biased viewpoint in presentation before survey is taken.
B. When surveys are made easy to take, people tend not to say what they really think.
C. People who are highly opinionated are likely to be over-represented in the sample.
D. Most people taking the survey will not know the subject and will answer randomly.
E. Location context where the survey is conducted will always bias too much the results.
C. People who are highly opinionated are likely to be over-represented in the sample.
What thinking captures assumptions, open-minded antecedents and consequents in what ultimately becomes scientific findings?
A. The early bird is the one who catches the worm.
B. Scientific studies always leave nothing to chance.
C. The second mouse is the one who gets the cheese.
D. Explanatory variable is in some but not all samples.
E. Great opportunities are infrequent and often imperfect.
D. Explanatory variable is in some but not all samples.
If a factor prevents disease, what would favor studying the factor naturally occurring in region 1 versus it being an intervention in region 2?
A. Randomization of the intervention is absent, so either study is equally effective.
B. Another factor from region 1 is likely blocking disease so neither region is favored.
C. There should be more events of the known factor's action in region 1, so region 1 is favored.
D. Factor naturally available from the environment is less subject to erroneous artifacts.
E. Exposure of factor to a subject is known and potential effect measured shortly after.
E. Exposure of factor to a subject is known and potential effect measured shortly after.
What is a critical logical component of the scientific method that Francis Bacon said little if anything about?
A. Reasoning from the particular results of observations to a general conclusion.
B. Gut feeling as the leap in understanding going from hypothesis to conclusion.
C. Publishing the findings following inductive logical analysis of study results.
D. Combining precedent with new antecedent-consequent explanations of outcomes.
E. Consulting colleagues investigating associated factors under similar conditions.
D. Combining precedent with new antecedent-consequent explanations of outcomes.
How can reasoning be effectively applied to transform evidence into meaningful conclusions?
A. By ignoring context and focusing on raw data patterns.
B. By applying reasoning that is not constrained by the evidence.
C. By prioritizing gut feelings of what you intuit the data indicate.
D. By reasoning from conditional hypotheses that explain the evidence.
E. By ensuring deterministic reasoning and considering context.
D. By reasoning from conditional hypotheses that explain the evidence.
Why are variables (quantitative or categorical) largely if not completely excluded from qualitative research?
A. Because qualitative research focuses on exploring patterns and relationships.
B. Because qualitative research does not require any data collection.
C. Because variables are irrelevant to all research methods.
D. Because qualitative research emphasizes context and meanings rather than measurement.
E. Because variables are only used in interviews and focus groups.
D. Because qualitative research emphasizes context and meanings rather than measurement.
What is the primary purpose of a scatter plot?
A. To calculate the median of a dataset.
B. To display categorical data.
C. To explore the association between two quantitative variables.
D. To depict the variance of a single variable.
E. To show the mean of a dataset.
C. To explore the association between two quantitative variables.
Of the following, what is the one best method to support a cause-and-effect relationship?
A. Observational study.
B. Random sampling.
C. Probability analysis.
D. Coincidence.
E. Reversal of outcome.
E. Reversal of outcome.
What is an example of a condition that often resolves following a natural time course without intervention?
A. Hypertension.
B. Cancer.
C. Asthma.
D. Bell's palsy.
E. Diabetes.
D. Bell's palsy.
Which of the following study design considerations is most crucial in determining whether a variable is truly explanatory?
A. Whether the relationship between the variables is statistically significant.
B. Whether the study design supports a cause-and-effect relationship consistent with the variable explaining the outcome.
C. Whether the variables are associated in a large dataset.
D. Whether the independent variable values are easy to measure.
E. Whether the variable can be plotted on the x-axis.
B. Whether the study design supports a cause-and-effect relationship consistent with the variable explaining the outcome.
In biomedical research, what is the role of categorical (qualitative) variables?
A. Measuring the magnitude of intervention effects.
B. Calculating means and standard deviations.
C. Organizing groups or conditions for comparison.
D. Quantifying significance of continuous data.
E. Enhancing statistical precision of study findings.
C. Organizing groups or conditions for comparison.
For quantitative research, what is the most important result evidencing what factor causes the outcome?
A. Calculating means and standard deviations.
B. Organizing groups or conditions for comparison.
C. Enhancing statistical precision of study findings.
D. Measuring the magnitude of intervention effects.
E. Quantifying significance of continuous data.
D. Measuring the magnitude of intervention effects.
What role might any factor play when testing it as a cause of an outcome of interest?
A. Necessary but not sufficient.
B. Neither sufficient nor necessary.
C. Sufficient but not necessary.
D. Necessary and sufficient.
E. All the other answers.
E. All the other answers.
What feature of interventional studies best tests for evidence for a causal factor in your outcome of interest?
A. Multiple comparator groups to determine intervention robustness.
B. Removal of the intervention to measure the reversibility of outcome.
C. Number of subjects, objects, or events for test group is greater than 30.
D. Multiple time points closely following the time of the intervention.
E. Number of subjects, objects, or events for controls is greater than 30.
B. Removal of the intervention to measure the reversibility of outcome.
For experimental research designs, what is the hierarchy from best to worst?
A. Prospective randomized control trials, non-randomized control trials, retrospective control trials.
B. Randomized control trials, non-randomized control trials, retrospective randomized control trials.
C. Retrospective randomized control trials, non-randomized control trials, prospective randomized control trials.
D. Randomized control trials, non-randomized control trials, non-controlled interventional trials.
E. Randomized control trials, non-randomized control trials, retrospective randomized trials.
D. Randomized control trials, non-randomized control trials, non-controlled interventional trials.
When studying a variable that follows an exponential distribution, what should you avoid if you want to preserve its original distribution shape?
A. Always making sure that only a single measurement from the population.
B. Using study designs that only use a small sample size.
C. Having many samples to measure the variable multiple times.
D. Summing independent sample means of the variable in a histogram.
E. Always make sure only the raw data values are plotted.
D. Summing independent sample means of the variable in a histogram.
When comparing data sets using side-by-side box plots, what is the primary advantage of this method within Exploratory Data Analysis (EDA)?
A. They allow direct calculation of p-values to confirm statistical significance.
B. They ensure assumptions of normal distribution are met before analysis.
C. They display measures of central tendency and variability in a robust, visual form.
D. They eliminate the possibility of outliers influencing the data interpretation.
E. They are better than scatter plots for showing relationships between two quantitative variables.
C. They display measures of central tendency and variability in a robust, visual form.
Which of the following is an example of an ordinal variable?
A. Blood pressure measured in mmHg.
B. Persons' country of birth.
C. Survival status (alive or dead).
D. People's social security numbers.
E. Levels of satisfaction rated from 1 to 7.
E. Levels of satisfaction rated from 1 to 7.
When analyzing a 2 × 2 table for independence, why must both 'positive' and 'negative' outcomes be considered?
A. Negatives are usually negligible in large samples.
B. They provide the complete set of data needed to calculate proportions for each group.
C. Independence can be tested using only total counts of positives.
D. Positives and negatives are unrelated in 2 × 2 analysis.
E. Only positives indicate the likelihood of an event.
B. They provide the complete set of data needed to calculate proportions for each group.
Which statement best describes specificity?
A. The ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease.
B. The proportion of all individuals who test negative.
C. The probability that a positive test result is correct.
D. The ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease.
E. The ability to reduce false negatives.
A. The ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease.
What do measures of dispersion tell us about a data set in relation to its average?
A. How systematically performed was the research study design that generated the data.
B. Confidence in its precision and likely distinctness from the average value of other data sets.
C. Dispersion is a characteristic property of data sets with a large variation of values.
D. The nature of statistics in your sample as a correlate of the parameter in your population.
E. Any dispersion measure from a data set can often be used to identify outliers.
C. Dispersion is a characteristic property of data sets with a large variation of values.
What are advantages of box plot over histogram displays of quantitative variables?
A. Central tendency in the mean and spread in the standard deviation for each data set.
B. Simple focus on the central tendency of the median and spread in the interquartiles.
C. Central tendency is the mean and spread is the standard error for each data set.
D. Central tendency in the median and spread in interquartile range for each data set.
E. Simple focus on the central tendency of the mean and spread in the data in the range.
D. Central tendency in the median and spread in interquartile range for each data set.
What distinguishes qualitative research and qualitative variables?
A. Qualitative research aims at improving the quality of care or workplace without trying to test a hypothesis.
B. Qualitative research has neither quantitative nor qualitative variables. Qualitative variables are only in quantitative research.
C. Qualitative research uses numbers such as those in Likert scales in order to convert qualitative research into quantitative research.
D. Qualitative research gathers information on topics of interest without trying to generalize what information is obtained.
E. Qualitative research has the number of mathematically meaningful situations. Qualitative variables are mathematically meaningful.
B. Qualitative research has neither quantitative nor qualitative variables. Qualitative variables are only in quantitative research.
What is the most appropriate initial step in quantitative research to test whether your explanatory variable and outcome variable are coincidental?
A. Perform a meta-analysis of existing studies.
B. Use regression analysis to estimate the effect size.
C. Conduct a randomized controlled trial (RCT).
D. Use qualitative interviews to explore relationships.
E. Apply 2 × 2 table logic to assess independence.
E. Apply 2 × 2 table logic to assess independence.
What 2 × 2 table logic parameter values change with prevalence?
A. Sensitivity.
B. False Negative Rate.
C. Positive Predictive Value.
D. Specificity.
E. Likelihood Ratio.
C. Positive Predictive Value.
The fact that most diseases are rare, without any additional data, tells you that ...
A. A diagnostic test must have good sensitivity.
B. A positive diagnostic test result is likely to be true.
C. A negative diagnostic test result is likely to be false.
D. A positive diagnostic test result is likely to be false.
E. A diagnostic test must have good specificity.
D. A positive diagnostic test result is likely to be false.
Student’s t-test is the most common statistic of significance used when comparing the mean of two samples of quantitative, normally distributed data sets. The t-test provides statistical analysis of the difference in sample means normalized to the standard error of difference of sample means. The numerator relates to the explanatory variable, whereas the denominator relates to the random noise in the study results. The t-test is special and distinct from other statistics, in particular as opposed to the z-statistic or other statistics, because the t-statistic is valid for small samples. What is the n number of independent samples in a study where the t-test should be used to analyze the probability of the difference between the means of two samples being due to chance alone?
A. 40–100.
B. 4–1000.
C. 20–30.
D. 4–30.
E. 40–1000.
D. 4–30.
When presenting figures showing analysis of your data, the 95% CI is preferred over the range, SD, and SE assessing your data values because ...
A. Range can include outlier values that unnecessarily skew the visualization of the data.
B. CI is an easily understood indicator of how precise the mean of the values was determined.
C. SE is a complex conception that is not as readily related as the CI is to the estimate of the mean.
D. CIs are part of the ‘new statistics’ that are designed to improve engagement of the readers.
E. SD is a complex conception that is not as readily related as the CI is to the estimate of the mean.
B. CI is an easily understood indicator of how precise the mean of the values was determined.
What does the ‘p’ in p-value stand for and the numeric value indicate?
A. ‘Publish’ the difference observed in test versus control cases as significant at the level of the numeric value.
B. ‘Probability’ of random variation accounting for the difference observed in test versus control cases.
C. ‘Preliminary’ but worth publishing the difference observed in test versus control cases so others can know.
D. ‘Probability’ that the difference observed in test versus control cases is real and is worth further investigation.
E. ‘Publish’ the difference observed in test versus control cases and likelihood the finding will last the test of time.
B. ‘Probability’ of random variation accounting for the difference observed in test versus control cases.
Which of the following is a key advantage of cause-and-effect models over correlation-based models in medical research?
A. They are less expensive to conduct.
B. They guarantee ethical acceptability of interventions.
C. They can predict how changing one factor affects outcomes.
D. They typically require fewer data points.
E. They avoid the need for control groups.
C. They can predict how changing one factor affects outcomes.
What are the reasons why a patient who tests positive in a diagnostic test for a disease does not necessarily have a 100% probability of actually having the disease?
A. Diagnostic tests have a substantial rate of true negatives.
B. Diagnostic tests have a significant rate of false negatives.
C. The prevalence of the population of any disease is not 100%.
D. Diagnostic tests have a significant rate of false positives.
E. Diagnostic tests have a substantial rate of true positives.
D. Diagnostic tests have a significant rate of false positives.
What is a strength and a weakness inherent with the one-way ANOVA statistic?
A. Allows statistical comparisons of two or more data sets but requires that each data set has a minimum of 30 values.
B. Has built in Tukey post-hoc test that allows statistical comparisons of which pair(s) are likely to have real differences.
C. Allows statistical comparisons among two or more data sets and indicate which pair(s) are likely to have real differences.
D. Allows statistical comparisons of two or more data sets but does not indicate which pair(s) of data sets are likely to have real differences.
E. Has built in Bonferroni post-hoc test that allows statistical comparisons of which pair(s) are likely to have real differences.
D. Allows statistical comparisons of two or more data sets but does not indicate which pair(s) of data sets are likely to have real differences.
What are the advantages of presenting estimates of variability of a research study by 95% confidence intervals rather than p-values?
A. Confidence intervals eliminate the need for statistical significance.
B. Confidence intervals provide a range of plausible values for the effect size.
C. Confidence intervals are more easily calculated than p-values.
D. Confidence intervals are less affected by sample size than p-values.
E. Confidence intervals are more visually appealing than p-values.
B. Confidence intervals provide a range of plausible values for the effect size.
Why do physicians make sure they know the epidemiology of the diseases in their specialty of practice?
A. Epidemiology provides knowledge of the relationship between risk factors and disease in a population of patients.
B. A centerpiece of epidemiology is prevalence, which is important in understanding the prognosis for the patient.
C. Epidemiology provides the knowledge of the cause and effect of diseases in a defined population of patients.
D. A centerpiece of epidemiology is prevalence, which is important in properly interpreting diagnostic tests results.
E. A centerpiece of epidemiology is prevalence, which is important in interpreting therapeutic test results.
D. A centerpiece of epidemiology is prevalence, which is important in properly interpreting diagnostic tests results.
In the context of medical reasoning, which step follows the generation of a diagnostic hypothesis using abductive logic?
A. Identifying a surprising clinical effect.
B. Conducting a literature review.
C. Deriving logical predictions.
D. Refining the explanatory model.
E. Formulating a differential diagnosis.
E. Formulating a differential diagnosis.
In the example of β-cell insulin secretion, what would be the statistical null hypothesis (H₀)?
A. Glibenclamide decreases insulin secretion when potassium and calcium are elevated.
B. Glibenclamide acts as a mechanistic amplifier of second-phase insulin secretion.
C. Insulin secretion is equal in β-cells with or without glibenclamide under the specified ionic conditions.
D. Mean insulin secretion is greater in β-cells exposed to glibenclamide compared to those without it.
E. Glibenclamide increases insulin secretion under conditions of high extracellular potassium and maximal calcium influx.
C. Insulin secretion is equal in β-cells with or without glibenclamide under the specified ionic conditions.
What does the concept of order-dependence emphasize when evaluating causality?
A. That two variables occur simultaneously.
B. That correlation automatically implies causation.
C. That two variables must be seen together in many contexts.
D. That the presumed exposure must precede the outcome.
E. That an outcome can cause an exposure equally.
D. That the presumed exposure must precede the outcome.
In dose-dependence analysis, latency in the onset of an effect reflects:
A. A direct and immediate effect of the exposure.
B. Saturability of the system’s response to exposure.
C. That decline in response is due only to subject mortality.
D. That receptor-ligand binding always happens instantly.
E. Multiple steps occurring before any effect becomes observable.
E. Multiple steps occurring before any effect becomes observable.
In Kaplan-Meier survival analysis, the vertical cross-hatches typically represent:
A. Points where participants have died during the interval.
B. Participants who are censored (lost to follow-up or withdrawn alive).
C. Hazard ratio estimates for each time point.
D. The average survival time of the cohort at each interval.
E. Intervals where data were imputed due to missing values.
B. Participants who are censored (lost to follow-up or withdrawn alive).
Which statement correctly defines a primary causal factor, a modifier, and a mediator?
A. Primary causal factors alter effect size, modifiers lie on the causal pathway, and mediators directly produce outcomes.
B. Primary causal factors distort associations, modifiers explain mechanisms, and mediators directly cause outcomes.
C. Primary causal factors and modifiers are interchangeable, while mediators are confounders.
D. Primary causal factors directly influence outcomes, modifiers change the strength of the exposure–outcome relationship, and mediators transmit effects along the causal pathway.
E. Primary causal factors are variables on the causal pathway, modifiers are outcomes, and mediators distort associations.
D. Primary causal factors directly influence outcomes, modifiers change the strength of the exposure–outcome relationship, and mediators transmit effects along the causal pathway.
What would be the shape of the cumulation of cancer cases that required two processes to occur?
A. Two linear rising components.
B. Immediately rising exponential.
C. Two exponential rising components.
D. A delay then rising exponential.
E. Immediately rising line.
D. A delay then rising exponential.
What are the major rate limiting steps that determine prevalence once the zero case enters a community?
A. Cultural norms.
B. Infectious period.
C. Population susceptibility.
D. Latency and incubation.
E. All answer options.
E. All answer options.
What complicates the survival analysis needed to answer the relatively simple question: What was the average survival time of patients with disease X?
A. Patients who are still alive at the conclusion of the study.
B. Patients deciding not to continue participating in the study.
C. All answer options.
D. Patients physically no longer able to participate in the study.
E. Patients who die of another cause unrelated to disease X.
C. All answer options.
Smoking rates are constant but lung cancers are increased by a 2nd factor. A 3rd factor associates with lung cancer but does not alter its rate. What is going on?
A. 2nd and 3rd factors are lurking factors associated with lung cancer.
B. 2nd factor is a confounder whereas the 3rd factor is a modifier.
C. 3rd factor is a causal factor because it associates with lung cancer.
D. All 3 factors must be present for the increase in lung cancer rates.
E. 2nd factor is a modifier and 3rd factor a confounder in lung cancer.
E. 2nd factor is a modifier and 3rd factor a confounder in lung cancer.
How to choose linear or exponential, and singular or few variable causal mechanisms?
A. All relationships are random.
B. Linear models are always preferred.
C. Only exponential models are useful in medicine.
D. Singular variables are not useful.
E. Relationship of variable guides model selection.
E. Relationship of variable guides model selection.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of Critical Appraisal in Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM)?
A. To prioritize anecdotal experience over scientific studies.
B. To substitute physician judgment with statistical models.
C. To efficiently sort through biomedical publications for trustworthy evidence.
D. To eliminate the need for randomized controlled trials.
E. To rely on historical practices that have worked in the past.
C. To efficiently sort through biomedical publications for trustworthy evidence.
What is the ultimate goal of formulating a specific and well-structured clinical or research question?
A. To identify every study ever published on the topic.
B. To replace experimental data collection entirely.
C. To ensure colleagues’ input is unnecessary.
D. To develop an answerable query that guides efficient and targeted literature review.
E. To avoid using knowledge bases available on the web.
D. To develop an answerable query that guides efficient and targeted literature review.
In the later stages of literature triage, what is the critical step for applying evidence to patient care?
A. Reading every article available regardless of relevance.
B. Relying only on abstracts and titles.
C. Memorizing the entire article without critique.
D. Using the oldest available studies for historical consistency.
E. Assessing internal and external validity of the study.
E. Assessing internal and external validity of the study.
Which of the following is the main advantage of a systematic review compared to an authoritative review?
A. Generates original data from new experiments or trials.
B. Uses transparent and reproducible methods to minimize bias.
C. Provides expert opinion and context to interpret findings.
D. Offers practice guidelines based on the best available evidence.
E. Pools statistical results to increase precision of conclusions.
B. Uses transparent and reproducible methods to minimize bias.
Which of the following is a major limitation of relying solely on the evidence hierarchy pyramid?
A. It overemphasizes animal research.
B. It eliminates the need for peer review.
C. It undervalues randomized controlled trials.
D. It prioritizes anecdotes over data.
E. It assumes all studies of the same design are equal in quality.
E. It assumes all studies of the same design are equal in quality.
When reading the biomedical literature, clinicians and scientists should be...?
A. Imaginative.
B. Ready for fun.
C. Accepting all.
D. Skeptical.
E. Up for anything.
D. Skeptical.
As a future clinician, scientist, or clinician-scientist, how many papers do you think will be published in your specialty area each week?
Select all that apply.
A. 50
B. 500
C. 100
D. 1000
E. 200
A. 50
B. 500
C. 100
D. 1000
E. 200
What are the over-arching topics to analyze and evaluate in any grant, publication, or scientific critique?
A. Classification Revision Explanation Assessment Match.
B. Criticism Rating Elaboration Assertion Maximization.
C. Creation Recognition Evaluation Analysis Memorization.
D. Combination Rating Examination Appraisal Model.
E. Claim Rationale Evidence Alternatives Meaning.
E. Claim Rationale Evidence Alternatives Meaning.
What are examples of primary studies in the biomedical literature?
A. Systematic reviews.
B. Meta-analyses.
C. Clinical guidelines.
D. Narrative reviews.
E. Randomized Controlled Trials.
E. Randomized Controlled Trials.
What concepts are used in evaluating evidence for cause and association, over coincidence?
Select all that apply.
A. Biological gradient, or dose-dependent relationship between the evident candidate cause and outcome of interest.
B. Temporality with the key feature that the evident candidate cause occurs before the outcome of interest.
C. Reproducibility, under widely differing conditions and circumstances, observed repeatedly in independent tests.
D. Strength of evidence, enormous change in outcome in the presence but not in the absence of candidate cause.
E. Biomedical plausibility and coherence with the framework of principles and facts related to the empirical tests.
F. Specificity, of the association, limited to certain patients, and to particular sites, conditions, and circumstances.
A, B, C, D, E, F
The time and effort spent searching databases for biomedical articles can be cut ten-fold by first choosing to search based on:
A. A blast search of all kinds of articles, clinical and basic science, so that nothing is missed.
B. A search of a handful of the highest-profile journals that publish clinical research articles.
C. An up-for-anything search with general open-minded terms to expand the topic maximally.
D. A specific kind of clinical article specified by descriptors of the relevant type of clinical question.
E. A handful of the highest-profile authors that publish clinical research articles in the field.
D. A specific kind of clinical article specified by descriptors of the relevant type of clinical question.
The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) of 1.87 in this RCT implies that:
A. The vaccine prevents 87% of cases in all treated individuals.
B. Nearly two patients need treatment to observe any side effect.
C. One patient must be treated to prevent one case of disease.
D. NNT indicates how many participants dropped out of the trial.
E. For every 2 patients treated, one additional patient is protected.
E. For every 2 patients treated, one additional patient is protected.
What is the key strength of a cohort study design as illustrated here in the pre-class PDF?
A. Provides mechanistic understanding at the molecular level.
B. Direct measurement of incidence of outcomes in exposed vs. non-exposed groups.
C. Ability to establish cause-and-effect with certainty.
D. Requirement of fewer participants compared to randomized trials.
E. Elimination of all confounding variables.
B. Direct measurement of incidence of outcomes in exposed vs. non-exposed groups.
What is a major limitation of case-control studies, compared to cohort studies?
A. Inability to investigate associations between exposures and outcomes.
B. Ethical constraints prevent their conduct in most settings.
C. Inability to calculate odds ratios from data.
D. Dependence on retrospective data which may introduce recall or record bias.
E. Requirement of prohibitively large sample sizes.
D. Dependence on retrospective data which may introduce recall or record bias.
In cost-effectiveness analysis, what does the Incremental Cost-Effectiveness Ratio (ICER) represent?
A. The ratio of total healthcare costs to total population size.
B. The direct and indirect costs combined into a single measure.
C. The absolute cost savings of one intervention over another.
D. The clinical efficacy difference between two treatments without cost considerations.
E. The amount of additional cost per additional QALY gained when comparing two interventions.
E. The amount of additional cost per additional QALY gained when comparing two interventions.
What are the major strategies of critically appraising an outcome of interest?
A. Search exclusively in high-profile journals in your area.
B. Focus on reviewing a year's worth of literature sequentially.
C. Consult with a colleague and follow their recommended readings.
D. Investigate literature one year at a time until you find a good article.
E. Investigate research designs and study types relevant to your practice or research.
E. Investigate research designs and study types relevant to your practice or research.
While investigating the full RCT article, what are you focusing on for evaluating the strength of the finding?
A. p-values from t-tests or ANOVA tests for random differences.
B. Effect sizes across the different sets of measured outcomes.
C. How important is the biomedical problem being investigated?
D. Confidence intervals of the central tendency values of each set.
E. Effect sizes together with their associated confidence intervals.
E. Effect sizes together with their associated confidence intervals.
What feature distinguishes a Cohort from a Case-Control study that makes the strength by design stronger in the former than in the latter?
A. Case-Control studies use random allocation, whereas Cohort studies do not.
B. Case-Control studies are controlled, whereas Cohort studies are not controlled.
C. Cohort studies are prospective, whereas Case-Control studies are retrospective.
D. Cohort studies use random allocation, whereas Case-Control studies do not.
E. Case-Control studies are prospective, whereas Cohort studies are retrospective.
C. Cohort studies are prospective, whereas Case-Control studies are retrospective.
Why are Case-Control studies used so much more frequently over other designs for associating candidate causes of rare diseases?
A. Prospective Cohort studies are impractical because the likelihood of disease is very low.
B. Qualitative studies are not suited because they do not study association of variables.
C. Case-Control studies begin with the participants that already have the rare disease.
D. Prospective RCTs are unethical and impractical due to likelihood of disease being rare.
E. All answer options.
E. All answer options.
What does a QALY represent in the setting of best healthcare?
A. The healthcare cost of extending life by one year.
B. The net financial benefit of a healthcare policy.
C. The difference in costs between two treatments.
D. The number of years gained adjusted for quality of life.
E. The number of years the patient survives after treatment.
D. The number of years gained adjusted for quality of life.
In the concept LLMs as Cognitive Mirrors, what primary function does the mirror metaphor represent?
A. Automating metacognitive assessment.
B. Replacing faculty feedback.
C. Displaying factual errors only.
D. Generating complex mathematical equations.
E. Reflecting the quality of a learner’s reasoning.
E. Reflecting the quality of a learner’s reasoning.
When engaging in AI-assisted learning, effective monitoring and evaluation require the learner to:
A. Ask the model to self-evaluate to minimize human involvement.
B. Summarize everything produced by the model to avoid critical thinking.
C. Write new questions for later use while isolating individual facts.
D. Compare outputs to credible sources and reflect on accuracy and transferability.
E. Accept all model responses and focus on faster completion.
D. Compare outputs to credible sources and reflect on accuracy and transferability.
Machine learning differs from traditional programming because it:
A. Relies on symbolic reasoning alone.
B. Follows a fixed set of pre-written rules.
C. Avoids any need for error correction.
D. Is entirely based on human intuition.
E. Adapts automatically from data and feedback.
E. Adapts automatically from data and feedback.
How do transparency and accountability reinforce one another in ethical AI use?
A. Transparency replaces accountability.
B. They operate independently in scholarly integrity.
C. Both promote open disclosure of reasoning and contributions.
D. Accountability hides data sources for privacy.
E. Transparency focuses on humans while accountability applies only to AI.
C. Both promote open disclosure of reasoning and contributions.
Comparing human and AI reasoning supports development of:
A. Automated grading.
B. Peer competition.
C. Data storage efficiency.
D. Time-saving documentation.
E. Meta-awareness and adaptive expertise.
E. Meta-awareness and adaptive expertise.
What AI-ML-LLM use practices best align with responsible use?
A. Trust outputs if references appear, skipping independent review of methods and data.
B. Keep prompts private to reduce scrutiny of reasoning pathways and accountability.
C. Prioritize speed over validation when personalizing care or accelerating discovery.
D. Rely solely on model confidence scores to decide clinical or scientific actions.
E. Validate outputs, ensure transparency, maintain human oversight during application.
E. Validate outputs, ensure transparency, maintain human oversight during application.
What behavior best supports critical appraisal of LLM responses?
A. Confirming instances of cognitive bias rather than challenging them.
B. Comparing model outputs with trusted scholarly reviewed sources to verify accuracy.
C. Prioritizing fluency ignores the epistemic responsibility of learners.
D. Automation cannot replace human discernment or ethical accountability.
E. Presence of citations does not necessarily ensure correctness or unbiased reasoning.
B. Comparing model outputs with trusted scholarly reviewed sources to verify accuracy.
The concept of adaptive expertise in both human and machine learning primarily emphasizes:
A. Applying identical solutions regardless of context or new data.
B. Memorizing fixed patterns and avoiding anomalies.
C. Avoiding metacognitive monitoring to simplify learning processes.
D. Relying on static knowledge models that never change.
E. Continuously updating internal models through feedback and reflection.
E. Continuously updating internal models through feedback and reflection.
What practices most directly support ethical co-authorship between humans and AI systems?
A. Using AI to generate text anonymously to maintain objectivity.
B. Allowing AI systems to generate and approve their own conclusions.
C. Citing only human authors to simplify authorship declarations.
D. Disclosing AI use, checking for concocted reasoning and fabricated facts.
E. Prioritizing AI-generated efficiency over methodological transparency.
D. Disclosing AI use, checking for concocted reasoning and fabricated facts.
What unites scholarly work, AI literacy, and lifelong learning into a coherent identity?
A. Passive trust in model outputs combined with efficient automation.
B. Exclusive focus on predictive accuracy without human interpretation.
C. Delegation of moral responsibility to transparent algorithmic systems.
D. Technological fluency prioritized over adaptive professional development.
E. Continuous critical appraisal anchored in reflective ethical reasoning.
E. Continuous critical appraisal anchored in reflective ethical reasoning.
Which practice reduces the likelihood of a misdiagnosis by broadening the scope of possible conditions?
A. Relying solely on treatment response as a diagnostic tool.
B. Focusing only on the most common condition.
C. Limiting consideration to conditions within one specialty.
D. Developing a comprehensive differential diagnosis.
E. Deferring diagnostic testing until symptoms worsen.
D. Developing a comprehensive differential diagnosis.
Which of the following best describes System I in dual process cognitive theory as applied to clinical reasoning?
A. A formal hypothesis-testing framework used in research design.
B. Deliberate, effortful, and slow analysis of signs and symptoms.
C. A structured analytic approach exclusively used by novice clinicians.
D. A database of patient cases that is consciously recalled and compared.
E. Automatic, fast, and often unconscious processes used in pattern recognition.
E. Automatic, fast, and often unconscious processes used in pattern recognition.
In clinical reasoning, what is the role of semantic qualifiers?
A. They summarize detailed illness scripts.
B. They provide binary descriptors that help narrow patient presentations.
C. They eliminate the need for hypothesis generation.
D. They are equivalent to final diagnoses.
E. They encapsulate pathophysiology to exclude subsets of diagnoses.
B. They provide binary descriptors that help narrow patient presentations.
The diagnostic method shares the most similarity with which broader process?
A. Randomized controlled trials.
B. Epidemiologic surveillance studies.
C. Intuitive decision-making.
D. The Scientific Method.
E. Pattern recognition without hypothesis testing.
D. The Scientific Method.
How do AI systems best contribute to the use of differential diagnoses and illness scripts?
A. AI narrows focus prematurely to a single diagnosis.
B. AI eliminates the need for structured illness scripts.
C. AI relies only on population-level data and ignores individual patient factors.
D. AI creates illness scripts that completely replace physician judgment.
E. AI helps broaden the range of potential conditions considered.
E. AI helps broaden the range of potential conditions considered.
In the context of diagnostic process, which aspect most significantly contributes to errors?
A. Technical skill.
B. Administrative.
C. Medicine dosing.
D. Non-insured issues.
E. Clinical reasoning.
E. Clinical reasoning.
In the initial steps of the diagnostic decision-making process, what is crucial for clinicians to evaluate effectively?
A. What tests associated with this class of patient presentation should I order from the medical labs?
B. What treatment plans does the patient representation fit that I should look into for the patient?
C. What aspects of the patient presentation are discordant and therefore should be discarded?
D. In what ways does the presentation match the previous representations of patients seen earlier today?
E. Does the presentation clearly fit a known diagnosis or does it require careful clinical judgment?
E. Does the presentation clearly fit a known diagnosis or does it require careful clinical judgment?
Your patient's pre-test probability of disease is 20%, and you will treat only if a positive test raises the post-test probability to at least 80%. If the test's sensitivity is 80%, what minimum positive likelihood ratio (LR+) and specificity does the test need? (Hint: LR+ = sensitivity ÷ (1 − specificity).)
A. LR+ of at least 4.0, requiring specificity of at least 80%.
B. LR+ of at least 8.0, requiring specificity of at least 90%.
C. LR+ of at least 16.0, requiring specificity of at least 95%.
D. LR+ of at least 20.0, requiring specificity of at least 96%.
E. LR+ of at least 3.2, requiring specificity of at least 75%.
C. LR+ of at least 16.0, requiring specificity of at least 95%.
Conditional probabilities can make differential diagnostic hypothesis testing of a patient representation daunting. What strategies for the clinical reasoning process greatly simplify the process?
A. Focus on mastering the various prevalences associated with the likely major diseases.
B. Use an app accepting lists of signs and symptoms and go with its prioritized diagnoses.
C. After picking the leading differential diagnostic hypothesis, order lots of tests and often.
D. When conditional probabilities get daunting, turn to fast and intuitive System I thinking.
E. Look for must-have features and rejecting features associated with leading illness scripts.
E. Look for must-have features and rejecting features associated with leading illness scripts.
How can integrating AI, ML, and LLM enhance diagnostic decision making?
A. AI alone provides comprehensive diagnostic support without ML and LLMs.
B. Radiology provides a universal model for understanding diagnostic integration.
C. ML refines predictions but lacks communication capabilities that are provided by AI.
D. LLMs interpret language but do not identify patterns or refine predictions as ML does.
E. Integration creates a support system combining pattern recognition, prediction, and communication.
E. Integration creates a support system combining pattern recognition, prediction, and communication.