CCRN Cardiovascular and Hemodynamics Comprehensive Review

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Comprehensive practice flashcards in fill-in-the-blank style covering CCRN cardiovascular, hemodynamics, 12-lead ECG, shock states, pharmacological therapies, and mechanical circulatory support.

48 Terms

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<p>According to ECG diagnostic criteria, a Q wave is considered pathologic when its duration is __________ or longer and its depth is at least 25% of the height of the R wave.</p>

According to ECG diagnostic criteria, a Q wave is considered pathologic when its duration is __________ or longer and its depth is at least 25% of the height of the R wave.

≥0.04 seconds\ge 0.04\,\text{seconds}

2
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<p>The ECG feature shown in the diagram, characterized by a short PR interval of less than $$0.12\,\text{seconds}$$ and a slurred upstroke of the QRS complex, is known as a __________.</p>

The ECG feature shown in the diagram, characterized by a short PR interval of less than 0.12 seconds0.12\,\text{seconds} and a slurred upstroke of the QRS complex, is known as a __________.

delta wave

3
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<p>When leveling and zeroing a pulmonary artery or arterial catheter transducer, the air-fluid interface must be aligned with the phlebostatic axis, located at the __________.</p>

When leveling and zeroing a pulmonary artery or arterial catheter transducer, the air-fluid interface must be aligned with the phlebostatic axis, located at the __________.

4th intercostal space

4
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<p>During intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation, balloon inflation occurs at the __________ on the arterial waveform, which marks the closure of the aortic valve.</p>

During intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation, balloon inflation occurs at the __________ on the arterial waveform, which marks the closure of the aortic valve.

dicrotic notch

5
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<p>According to the Stanford classification system for aortic dissection, any tear that involves the ascending aorta is classified as __________.</p>

According to the Stanford classification system for aortic dissection, any tear that involves the ascending aorta is classified as __________.

Type A

6
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<p>On the chest wall, the aortic valve is best auscultated at the __________.</p>

On the chest wall, the aortic valve is best auscultated at the __________.

right second intercostal space

7
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In a 12-lead ECG, ST segment elevation across leads II, III, and aVF indicates an acute myocardial infarction of the __________ wall.

inferior

8
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ST segment elevation in leads V1 through V4 indicates an acute infarction supplied by the __________.

left anterior descending (LAD) artery

9
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When reading an ECG with both ST elevation and ST depression present in different lead groupings, the rule is that __________.

ST elevation trumps ST depression

10
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The standard STEMI door-to-balloon time goal for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is __________.

≤90 minutes\le 90\,\text{minutes}

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For suspected right ventricular infarction accompanying an inferior STEMI, the single most sensitive lead on a right-sided 12-lead ECG is __________.

V4R

12
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Preload-reducing medications such as nitroglycerin, diuretics, and morphine must be avoided in patients experiencing an acute __________ infarction.

right ventricular

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An inferior wall myocardial infarction carries a high risk for heart block located high in the AV node, such as __________.

third-degree heart block or second-degree type I (Wenckebach)

14
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Because the left anterior descending artery supplies the bundle of His and bundle branches, an acute anterior MI most commonly predisposes to __________.

second-degree AV block type II

15
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A new, loud, harsh apical systolic murmur developing two days after an inferior STEMI is indicative of acute mitral regurgitation caused by __________.

papillary muscle rupture

16
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A patient with fever and sharp pleuritic chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration and improves when leaning forward, occurring 2–10 weeks2\text{--}10\,\text{weeks} post-MI, is presenting with __________.

Dressler's syndrome

17
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Variant (Prinzmetal's) angina is caused by coronary artery vasospasm and is primarily treated with nitroglycerin and __________.

calcium channel blockers

18
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The normal reference range for central venous pressure (CVP) / right atrial pressure (RAP) taught in the review is __________.

2–6 mm Hg2\text{--}6\,\text{mm\,Hg}

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The normal reference range for pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP / wedge) is __________.

8–12 mm Hg8\text{--}12\,\text{mm\,Hg}

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The normal reference range for systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is __________.

800−1200 800-1200\,

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The normal reference range for pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) is described mnemonically as a quarter over a dime, or __________.

25/10 mm Hg25/10\,\text{mm\,Hg}

22
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The normal reference range for true mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2\text{SvO}_2) drawn from the distal port of a pulmonary artery catheter is __________.

65–75%65\text{--}75\%

23
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The hemodynamic hallmark of cardiogenic shock is a markedly reduced cardiac index below 2.0 L/min/m22.0\,\text{L/min/m}^2 accompanied by an elevated PAOP greater than __________.

18 mm Hg18\,\text{mm\,Hg}

24
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Unlike other shock states, early (warm) septic shock characteristically presents with an elevated cardiac output and an abnormally high SvO2\text{SvO}_2 exceeding __________.

75%75\%

25
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In distributive anaphylactic shock, massive histamine release causes profound systemic vasodilation resulting in an SVR well below __________.

800 dynes/sec/cm−5800\,\text{dynes/sec/cm}^{-5}

26
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On pulmonary artery catheter monitoring, cardiac tamponade is characterized by equalization of CVP, pulmonary artery diastolic pressure, and PAOP to within __________ of each other.

5 mm Hg5\,\text{mm\,Hg}

27
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Beck's triad of cardiac tamponade consists of hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and __________.

jugular venous distension (JVD)

28
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Pulsus paradoxus is defined as an inspiratory decrease in systolic blood pressure of greater than __________.

10 10\,

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For initial resuscitation in septic shock, the Surviving Sepsis guidelines recommend an IV crystalloid fluid bolus of __________.

30 mL/kg30\,\text{mL/kg}

30
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The first-line vasopressor of choice to restore vascular tone and target a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg65\,\text{mm\,Hg} in septic shock is __________.

norepinephrine

31
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When dosing dopamine, an infusion rate of 5–10 μg/kg/min5\text{--}10\,\mu\text{g/kg/min} primarily stimulates __________ receptors to increase myocardial contractility and heart rate.

beta-1

32
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Dopamine infusion rates exceeding 10 μg/kg/min10\,\mu\text{g/kg/min} stimulate __________ receptors, resulting in arterial vasoconstriction and increased afterload.

alpha-1

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The antidote used for local infiltration to prevent tissue necrosis following vasopressor extravasation is __________.

phentolamine

34
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The use of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is strictly contraindicated in patients with __________.

aortic valve insufficiency (aortic regurgitation)

35
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An S3 heart sound (ventricular gallop) is indicative of __________ and is auscultated when preload is significantly elevated.

fluid overload

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An S4 heart sound (atrial gallop) occurs in late diastole and represents atrial contraction ejecting into a __________.

non-compliant or stiff ventricle

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According to the heart murmur mnemonic 'MRS ASS', mitral regurgitation and aortic stenosis both produce __________ murmurs.

systolic

38
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According to the heart murmur mnemonic 'ARMS Down', aortic regurgitation and mitral stenosis both produce __________ murmurs.

diastolic

39
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In patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), inotropic agents like digoxin and dobutamine must be avoided because they __________.

worsen left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction

40
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For an unstable patient presenting with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia with a palpable pulse, the immediate ACLS treatment of choice is __________.

synchronized cardioversion

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The initial pharmacological treatment of choice for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (Torsades de Pointes) in an unstable or stable patient with a pulse is IV __________.

magnesium

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The P2Y12 platelet inhibitor prasugrel (Effient) carries a black box warning and should not be administered to patients who have a history of __________.

stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA)

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The target low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol goal following a myocardial infarction is less than __________.

70 mg/dL70\,\text{mg/dL}

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In temporary or permanent cardiac pacing, an undersensing condition results in __________ because the pacemaker fails to detect intrinsic cardiac activity.

over-pacing (pacing spikes where they should not be)

45
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During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), continuous end-tidal CO2\text{CO}_2 (PETCO2\text{P}_{\text{ET}}\text{CO}_2) monitoring is used to evaluate compression quality, and an abrupt jump exceeding __________ may indicate return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

40 mm Hg40\,\text{mm\,Hg}

46
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A hypertensive emergency is defined as an acute blood pressure elevation exceeding 180/120 mm Hg180/120\,\text{mm\,Hg} with target organ damage, and the initial treatment goal is to lower blood pressure by __________ in the first 1–2 hours1\text{--}2\,\text{hours}.

25%25\%

47
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Patients receiving prolonged infusions of sodium nitroprusside for more than 72 hours72\,\text{hours} or in the setting of renal failure are at high risk for __________ toxicity.

thiocyanate

48
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Following percutaneous coronary intervention via the femoral artery, a patient presenting with back pain, hypotension, tachycardia, and flank ecchymosis (Grey Turner's sign) should be immediately evaluated for __________.

retroperitoneal bleeding