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Learning Objectives:
Describe risk factors for glaucoma
Review medication induced glaucoma
Describe notable glaucoma trials
Identify important diagnosing parameters
Assess the different drug therapies available for treatment of glaucoma
What are risk factors for glaucoma?
Increased IOP → Not necessary for diagnosis
Optic nerve damage → Identified as C/D > 0.5
Central corneal thickness
Age
≥60 years for general population
≥40 years for African Americans
Race → African American higher incidence
Gender → Female > male
Family history
10x more likely to get glaucoma if family hx
≥50% of glaucoma is familial
Myopia → Not being able to see far away
Diabetes, HTN
Smoking, EtOH
Hypothyroidism → Strong association
Which drugs can increase the risk of open-angle glaucoma?
Open-angle glaucoma:
Ophthalmic corticosteroids
Systemic/nasal/inhaled corticosteroids
Ophthalmic anticholinergics
**Minimal risk of glaucoma if already treated with glaucoma medications and adequately controlled
**Serious risk if no treatment or inadequate treatment
Which drugs can increase the risk of angle-closure/closed-angle glaucoma?
Topical anticholinergics and sympathomimetics (high risk)
Systemic anticholinergics and sympathomimetics (slight risk)
Anti-depressants – TCAs, SSRIs, imipramine, venlafaxine
Antihistamines
What is the difference between open-angle vs angle-closure glaucoma?

Open-angle → free flow of aqueous humor
Closed-angle doesn’t allow aqueous humor to exit out
What is the etiology of glaucoma?
Anterior chamber depth is reduced, lens thickness is increased, flow of aqueous humor reduced
Specific cause of optic neuropathy is unknown:
Increased IOP → Ischemia → Decreased blood flow to retina → vessel wall abnormalities → Apoptosis of retinal ganglion cells → Axonal degeneration
How is glaucoma diagnosed?
Visual acuity test
How well can you see at various distances
Tonometer: measures pressure inside the eye
Dilated eye exam:
Visualization of the retina and optic nerve
Optic Disc → cup to disc ratio
C/D ≥0.5 = auto-diagnosis
Visual Field
What is the optic disc?
It is the portion of the eye that is visible by examination as it leaves the eye
Highly neuronal
Cup: small depression within the disk
Normally does not extend beyond optic nerve rim
If cup-disc ratio >0.5 then indicates damage
Alterations in disk are signs of glaucoma
Cup-to-disc (C/D) ratio of what indicates glaucoma?
C/D >0.5
How do changes in visual field change in relation to optic disc changes?
Visual field changes may lag behind optic disc changes
Need ~25-35% of retinal ganglion cells to be damaged to detect visual field changes
Visual field test measures peripheral vision
When a patient has glaucoma, how do we treat?
IOP is the only factor that be managed at this time
Drug therapy most common first line treatment
Surgical intervention can be done as well
No specific IOP but target ~30% decrease from baseline
Lowering IOP by 1 mmHg will decrease the disease progression by roughly 10%
IOP <18 mmHg related to reduction in visual field defects
Which agents are used for the treatment of glaucoma?
Beta-blockers (1st line)
Prostaglandin analogs (1st line)
Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors (CAIs)
Parasympathomimetic agents
Non-specific adrenergic agonists
Rho Kinase Inhibitor
What is the MOA of beta-blockers? How much do they lower IOP?
Lower IOP by 20-30%
All lower IOP to a similar degree
Mechanism of Action: Reduce the aqueous humor production of the ciliary body
If no contraindications, commonly used as first line
Which optic beta-blockers are used? How frequently can we use them?
Timolol → non-selective
Betaxolol → B1-selective
Carteolol → non-selective
Levobunolol → non-selective
Metipranolol → Non-selective
All are dosed 1 drop BID
Long-term use of beta-blockers can result in what?
Tachyphylaxis → can stop working overtime
If tachyphylaxis occurs, switch to different beta-blocker or different class
What are ADRs associated with beta-blocker use?
Topical ADRs:
Dry eyes, corneal anesthesia, blepharitis
Blurred vision, stinging
Systemic ADRs:
Decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, negative inotropic effects
Bronchospasm, block symptoms of hypoglycemia
Reduce sx by use of punctal occlusion, eyelid closure
Beta-blockers should be used with CAUTION in which patients?
Pulmonary disorders
Cardiovascular diseases (CHF, sinus bradycardia, 2nd/3rd degree heart block)
Diabetes
Use of oral beta-blockers
What is the MOA of prostaglandin & prostamide analogs?
Mechanism of action: Decrease IOP by increasing the uveoscleral outflow of the aqueous humor and to a lesser extent trabecular outflow
Productive-specific:
Latanoprostene bunod: releases nitric oxide which can relax the trabecular meshwork increasing drainage of aqueous humor
Omidenepag isopropyl: hydrolyzes to active omidenepag working in both uveoscleral and trabecular outflow
Prodrug
Which products are prostaglandin analogs?
Latanoprost
Latanoprostene bunod
Travaprost
Tafluprost
Which product is a prostamide analog?
Bimatoprost
Which product is our selective E2 analog?
Omidenepag isopropyl (prodrug)
Which prostaglandin analog comes as both a solution AND emulsion?
Latanoprost (Xalatan, Iyuzeh) = solution
Latanoprost (Xelpros) = emulsion
How often are prostaglandin/Prostamide Analogs used?
1 gtt qHS (1 drop at bedtime)
Used once daily
GOOD FOR ADHERENCE
How much do Prostaglandin & Prostamide Analogs lower IOP?
Lowers IOP ~25-35% → our strongest agent
How should Prostaglandin & Prostamide Analogs be stored?
Latanoprost, latanoprostene bunod, tafluprost, omidenepag must be stored in refrigerator until opened
Then stable for 6 weeks at room temperature
Which preservatives do our prostaglandin & prostamide analogs contain?
Latanoprost, latanoprostene bunod, and bimatoprost contain → benzalkonium chloride
Travoprost contains → Sofzia
Latanoprost (Xelpros®) contains potassium sorbate
Tafluprost and Iyuzeh brand® → preservative free!
Which Prostaglandin & Prostamide Analogs come as implants?
Bimatoprost (Durysta®) 10cmg: to be used only once in each eye
Biodegradable dissolving in 6 months
Only once per eye per lifetime
Travoprost (iDose TR®) 75mcg
Provide up to 3 years of therapy
Is MRI conditional → patients should notify they have this implant to any pending MRI
What ADRs are associated with prostaglandin & prostamide analog use? ***KNOW
Generally well tolerated, local ocular tolerance is good
1) Altered iris pigmentation
More prone in mixed color irises (blue-brown, greenbrown, blue-gray-brown, yellow-brown)
Irreversible
2) Hypertrichosis (longer/thicker eye lashes)
Common and reversible once agent is d/c’ed
3) Hyperpigmentation around lids
Reversible once agent is d/c’ed
What is Latisse?
Bimatoprost 0.03%
Used for hypotrichosis
Applied nightly directly to the skin of the upper eyelid margin at the base of the eyelashes using the accompanying applicators
Can also cause hyperpigmentation of the eyelids and iris color changes
What is the role of alpha-2 adrenergic agonists?
Not 1st line, moreso 3rd-line after beta-blocker & prostaglandins
Which alpha-2 adrenergic agonists do we use?
Brimonidine (Alphagan P)
Apraclonidine (not used anymore)
Mechanism of action:
Reduce aqueous humor production
Brimonidine also increases uveoscleral outflow
How frequently can alpha-2 adrenergic agonists be used?
1 drop BID-TID (2-3x/day)
How much do alpha-2 agonists reduce IOP?
Reduce IOP by 18-27% at peak (2-5 hours) and 10% (8-10 hours)
Briomnidine (Alphagan P) contains prurite preservative, how is this beneficial?
More neutral pH → if more neutral, more absorption
Less ocular allergy
Increased bioavailability
Which ADRs are associated with alpha-2 adrenergic agonists?
Allergic type reaction: lid edema, eye discomfort, foreign-body sensation, itching, hyperemia → D/C if these occur
Systemic
Dizziness, fatigue, somnolence, dry mouth, potential to lower blood pressure/pulse
Use with CAUTION if have cardiovascular disease, cerebrovascular disease
Or if taking antihypertensives, MAO-Is, TCAs
What is Lumify? What is it use for?
Brimonidine 0.025% (OTC product)
Redness remover
Works in 1 minute and lasts 8 hours
Selectively constricts the venule and maintains oxygenation to surrounding tissue
What is good about lumify?
Is selectively constricts the venule only
Other products constrict the arterioles, leading to REBOUND CONGESTION
What is role of therapy of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? (CAIs)
“3rd line agents”, available as both topical and oral formulation
What is the MOA of CAIs?
Mechanism of action: Blocks active secretion of the sodium and bicarbonate ions from the ciliary body to the aqueous humor
Reduces IOP by 15-26% (topical use)
Systemic lowers IOP by 25-40% and reduces aqueous humor inflow by 40-60%
Systemic CAIs are more effective - but have lots of more side effects
What are the CAI agents used?
Brinzolamide (Azopt) → Suspension
1 gtt BID-TID (2-3x/day)
Dorzolamide (Trusopt) → Solution
1 gtt BID-TID (2-3x/day)
Acetazolamide → Tablet, capsule, or injection
1 tab BID-QID (2-4x/day)
Metazolamide → Tablet
1 tab BID-TID (2-3x/day)
What are side effects associated with topical CAIs?
Topical formulations tolerated well
Transient burning/stinging/blurring/tearing
Blurry vision: Brinzolamide > dorzolamide
Stinging: Dorzolamide > brinzolamide
A patient complains of blurry vision using CAIs. Between Brinzolamide and Dorzolamide, which one is better for blurry vision?
Brinzolamide has less blurry vision side effects
A patient complains of stinging using CAIs. Between Brinzolamide and Dorzolamide, which one is better for stinging?
Dorzolamide has less stinging
What is the place in therapy of systemic CAIs?
Indicated for patients failing to respond to or tolerating maximum topical therapy
“Last line agents”
Should NOT be used in combination with topical CAIs
Which systemic side effects are seen with CAIs?
Only 30-60% able to tolerate oral agents
Malaise, fatigue, depression, confusion
N/V/D, anorexia, weight loss, metallic taste***
Systemic acidosis, electrolyte imbalance
Renal calculi (stones), increased uric acid
Blood dyscrasias
Which patients should we use CAIs with caution?
Patients with SULFA allergies
Also in pulmonary disorders, hepatic/renal disease, history of renal calculi for oral formulation
Contraindicated in ESRD pr severe renal impairment
What is the role of parasympathomimetic agents?
“Last line agents”
Not used as often due to adverse events and frequent dosing regimens
Mechanism of action:
Increase the aqueous humor trabecular outflow
May reduce uveoscleral outflow
Which parasympathomimetic agents do we use?
Carbachol → solution
1 drop BID-TID
Pilocarpine → solution and gel
Solution: 1 drop BID-TID
Gel: 1 drop qHS
Pilocarpine is preferred over carbachol
Which ADRs are seen with Parasympathomimetic Agents?
Miosis (constriction of pupil) decreased night-time vision
Frontal headache, brow ache, periorbital pain
Eyelid twitching, conjunctival irritation or injections early in therapy
All of the above are more frequent, constant, and severe with carbachol → therefore, pilocarpine preferred
What is our rho kinase inhibitor?
Netarsudil (Rhopressa®) 0.02% solution
1 gtt daily in evening
Reduces IOP up to 5 mmHg
Mechanism of Action: inhibits rho kinase enzymes thereby increasing drainage of intraocular fluid through trabecular meshwork
Adverse Events: hyperemia, corneal deposits, stinging, mild conjunctival hemorrhage
What should we monitor when giving treatment for glaucoma?
Start with one medication
Follow-up in 2-4 weeks
Once reach target IOP then q3-6 months
Visual field and disk changes annually
No single agent is labeled as drug of choice first line
If partial response → ADD-ON therapy with a second agent
If no response → SWITCH to an alternative agent after 1 day of concurrent therapy
Maximum medical therapy would be ~3 meds per day
Ex: prostaglandin + combination product
No specific IOP but would target:
~20% mild glaucoma, 30-40% moderate, 50% severe
What is classified as ocular hypertension?
Elevated IOP (>22 mmHg) but no disk changes or visual field loss
Based on risk factors:
If IOP >26 mmHg, cup-disc ratio >0.3, central corneal thickness <555 micrometers are at risk of developing glaucoma → TREAT
Family history, race, severe myopia, only one eye increased consideration
If no risk factors, typically not treated